Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anti-measles IgM. During acute measles infection, the body produces IgM antibodies specific to the measles virus. This indicates a recent or current infection. A: Anti-mumps IgM and B: Anti-rubella IgM are specific to mumps and rubella viruses, respectively, not measles. D: Anti-CMV IgM is specific to cytomegalovirus, not measles. In summary, choice C is correct because Anti-measles IgM is the specific antibody indicating acute measles infection, while the other choices are antibodies related to different viruses.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B being correct: 1. The conclusion should be based on evidence or observations. 2. "Doubtful" suggests uncertainty, indicating lack of definitive safety. 3. Choice A is too absolute without considering potential risks. 4. Choice C uses extreme language without proper evidence. 5. Choice D is overly definitive without considering varying levels of contamination. Therefore, choice B is the most reasonable conclusion.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. The patient's travel history to an endemic area like Tajikistan, along with symptoms of fever with chills, sweating, and hepatosplenomegaly, are classic for malaria. The blood test results show anemia (low RBC and hemoglobin levels), which can occur in malaria due to hemolysis. The presence of eosinophils and lymphocytes are not typical for malaria, but the overall clinical picture fits. Infectious mononucleosis (choice B) typically presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and atypical lymphocytosis, which are not seen in this case. Sepsis (choice C) is characterized by systemic inflammatory response syndrome and organ dysfunction due to infection, which does not align with the symptoms and findings in the case. Typhoid fever (choice D) usually presents with gradual onset of sustained fever, abdominal pain, headache, and constipation, which are not present in this patient

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Late congenital syphilis. The symptoms described align with late congenital syphilis, which includes saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull, peg-shaped incisors, and notched cutting edge. Lymph nodes not being affected is also consistent with late congenital syphilis. Early congenital syphilis (B) typically presents with more severe symptoms at birth or shortly after. Tertiary syphilis (C) usually occurs years after initial infection and presents with different symptoms. Fluorosis (D) is caused by excessive fluoride intake and does not match the symptoms described.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoan causes amoebiasis, which presents with symptoms like diarrhea. The cysts with four nuclei found in the feces are characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoan is known to cause invasive infection, leading to tissue destruction and ulcers in the intestines. Lamblia (choice B) typically presents with cysts containing two nuclei. Trichomonas (choice C) is a sexually transmitted parasite and does not form cysts. Balantidium (choice D) is a ciliated protozoan that does not have four nuclei in its cyst form.