ATI RN
mastering microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following antibodies indicates acute measles infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anti-measles IgM. During acute measles infection, the body produces IgM antibodies specific to the measles virus. This indicates a recent or current infection. A: Anti-mumps IgM and B: Anti-rubella IgM are specific to mumps and rubella viruses, respectively, not measles. D: Anti-CMV IgM is specific to cytomegalovirus, not measles. In summary, choice C is correct because Anti-measles IgM is the specific antibody indicating acute measles infection, while the other choices are antibodies related to different viruses.
Question 2 of 5
The First-line tuberculosis drugs include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid and rifampicin. These drugs are considered first-line treatment for tuberculosis due to their high efficacy and low toxicity. Isoniazid targets the cell wall of the tuberculosis bacteria, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis. They are recommended by WHO as the first choice for treating tuberculosis. Choice B (Penicillin and erythromycin) is incorrect because these antibiotics are not effective against tuberculosis bacteria. Choice C (Trimethoprim and third generation cephalosporins) is incorrect because they are not considered first-line drugs for tuberculosis treatment. Choice D (All the listed above can be used depending on their resistance profile) is incorrect because only isoniazid and rifampicin are universally recognized as first-line drugs for tuberculosis regardless of resistance profile.
Question 3 of 5
Penicillin-resistant, beta-lactamase-producing strains must be detected..
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Before antibiotic therapy is begun. Detecting penicillin-resistant, beta-lactamase-producing strains before antibiotic therapy is crucial to ensure proper treatment. If detected after therapy (choice A), it may lead to treatment failure. Detection during therapy (choice C) may result in delayed or ineffective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as early detection is essential for successful management.
Question 4 of 5
One of the basic principles of chemotherapy is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Selective toxicity. Chemotherapy aims to target cancer cells while minimizing harm to healthy cells, known as selective toxicity. This principle is crucial to effectively treat cancer without causing excessive damage to the patient's body. Accumulation in the macroorganism (B) and causing allergies (C) are not fundamental principles of chemotherapy and can lead to harmful side effects. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the core objective of chemotherapy.
Question 5 of 5
Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for answer A: 1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known to cause burn wounds infections due to its ability to survive in moist environments. 2. It can cause severe pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis due to its resistance to antibiotics and ability to form biofilms. 3. It is a common cause of nosocomial infections in hospitals due to its ability to colonize medical equipment and surfaces. Summary of other choices: B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa typically does not cause food poisoning, as it is not a common pathogen associated with foodborne illnesses. C. Bacterial pharyngitis is usually caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, not Pseudomonas aeruginosa, making this choice incorrect. D. None of the above is incorrect as Pseudomonas aeruginosa is associated with specific infections mentioned in option A.