ATI RN
Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following antibiotics requires close monitoring and dosing * adjustment in a patient with liver disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythromycin. Erythromycin is primarily metabolized in the liver, making it important to monitor and adjust dosage in patients with liver disease to prevent potential toxicity. Gentamycin and Penicillin G are primarily excreted by the kidneys, so liver function has less impact on their metabolism. Vancomycin is primarily excreted by the kidneys as well, so liver disease would not significantly affect its dosing requirements.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following v agents is indicated in a 25 year old female is * diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Valacyclovir. 1. Valacyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex infections, including genital herpes. 2. It works by stopping the virus from multiplying in the body. 3. Amantadine (A) is used for influenza A virus, not herpes. 4. Lamivudine (C) is used for HIV and hepatitis B, not herpes. 5. Zanamivir (D) is used for influenza, not herpes.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following drugs most likely cause d this hematologic abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zidovudine. Zidovudine is known to cause hematologic abnormalities, specifically bone marrow suppression leading to anemia and neutropenia. This is due to its myelosuppressive effects. Acyclovir, Foscarnet, and Amantadine do not typically cause such hematologic abnormalities. Acyclovir and Foscarnet are antiviral medications primarily affecting viral replication, while Amantadine is an antiviral agent used for influenza A virus. Therefore, based on the mechanism of action and known side effects, Zidovudine is the most likely drug to cause this hematologic abnormality.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following antiviral drug most commonly used drug for prevention * and treatment of CMV infections in the immunocompromised patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ganciclovir. Ganciclovir is the most commonly used antiviral drug for prevention and treatment of CMV infections in immunocompromised patients because it is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral DNA polymerase, thus preventing viral replication. Ganciclovir has a specific activity against CMV, making it effective for treating CMV infections. Choice B: Indinavir is a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, not for CMV infections. Choice C: Amantadine is an antiviral drug used for influenza A treatment, not for CMV infections. Choice D: Foscarnet is a pyrophosphate analog that inhibits viral DNA polymerase but is typically used as a second-line treatment for CMV due to its side effects and toxicity compared to Ganciclovir.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following statement about retroviral protease inhibitors? *
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because retroviral protease inhibitors specifically target the protease enzyme in HIV, which is essential for viral replication at an early step. This disrupts the maturation of new viral particles, inhibiting viral replication. Choice B is incorrect as zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, not a protease inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as protease inhibitors are known to inhibit CYP3A4, leading to drug interactions, but not all of them interact with many other drugs. Choice D is incorrect as it combines two separate statements without providing accurate information.