ATI RN
Genitourinary System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures?:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI). This regimen is typically reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or repeated treatment failures due to its high potency and effectiveness in suppressing HIV replication. NRTIs work by blocking the reverse transcriptase enzyme, while PIs inhibit the protease enzyme, both essential for HIV replication. Combining two NRTIs with a PI targets the virus at multiple stages, reducing the likelihood of resistance development. In contrast, the other choices (B, C, D) do not offer the same level of efficacy or resistance prevention as the combination in choice A. B: Three NRTIs may lead to increased toxicity without added benefit. C: Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI lacks the potency of a PI in advanced cases. D: One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI is not as effective as two NRTIs + one PI in suppressing
Question 2 of 5
The following drug is used for oral treatment of trichomonas vaginitis:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Tinidazole, for oral treatment of trichomonas vaginitis. Tinidazole is a nitroimidazole antibiotic that is effective against trichomonas. It has good oral bioavailability and is commonly used for this infection. Diiodohydroxyquin (A) is not indicated for trichomonas vaginitis. Clotrimazole (C) and Ketoconazole (D) are antifungal agents used for yeast infections, not trichomonas. Tinidazole is the most appropriate choice due to its effectiveness against trichomonas and its oral administration route.
Question 3 of 5
Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher concentrations?:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Erythromycin is primarily bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria. At higher concentrations, it can disrupt bacterial cell membranes, making it bactericidal. Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis, Chloramphenicol blocks peptide bond formation, and Ampicillin disrupts bacterial cell wall synthesis. Therefore, A is correct because of its dual mechanism of action.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of alprostadil?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alprostadil is a prostaglandin E1 analog that works by binding to specific receptors and activating adenylate cyclase, leading to increased levels of cAMP. This results in smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect as alprostadil does not directly affect cGMP levels or PDE-5 activity. Choice D is also incorrect as alprostadil does not block nitric oxide, but rather enhances its effects through the cAMP pathway.
Question 5 of 5
A 35 year old man presents to the ER with severe headache. After lab workup, patient is diagnosed to have increased intracranial pressure. Which diuretic would work best to reduce this pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and reducing intracranial pressure. It is commonly used in cases of increased intracranial pressure due to its ability to easily cross the blood-brain barrier and reduce cerebral edema. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic mainly used for hypertension and not effective for this condition. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that can reduce CSF production but is not as effective as mannitol for rapid reduction of intracranial pressure. Furosemide (D) is a loop diuretic that primarily acts on the kidneys and is not as effective as mannitol for reducing intracranial pressure.