ATI RN
The Cardiovascular Pharmacology of Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following agents is related to the third-generation heterocyclic antidepressants?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nefazodone. Third-generation heterocyclic antidepressants are newer antidepressants with improved side effect profiles compared to older generations. Nefazodone falls under this category due to its unique mechanism of action involving serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibition. It is also known for its lower risk of causing weight gain and sexual dysfunction compared to older antidepressants. Amitriptyline (A) and Maprotiline (B) are first-generation tricyclic antidepressants, known for their anticholinergic side effects. Tranylcypromine (D) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), which is a different class of antidepressants with its own set of side effects and interactions.
Question 2 of 5
Addiction is associated with the existence of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Addiction involves both psychological and physiological components. Psychological dependence refers to the emotional reliance on a substance or behavior, while physiological dependence involves changes in the body that lead to withdrawal symptoms. Tolerance is a phenomenon where more of a substance is needed to achieve the same effects. Therefore, all of the above options are associated with addiction, making choice D the correct answer.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following agents is used to accelerate recovery from the sedative actions of intravenous benzodiazepines?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flumazenil. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that competitively inhibits the effects of benzodiazepines like midazolam, accelerating recovery from sedative actions. Naloxone (A) is used to reverse opioid effects, not benzodiazepines. Ketamine (C) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Fomepizole (D) is used in methanol or ethylene glycol toxicity, not for benzodiazepine reversal. Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine overdose.
Question 4 of 5
Metoclopramide is a potent dopamine antagonist.It’s
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A: 1. Metoclopramide is known to block dopamine receptors, making it a dopamine antagonist. 2. This action helps in treating nausea, vomiting, and gastrointestinal issues by enhancing motility. 3. Therefore, the statement that Metoclopramide is a potent dopamine antagonist is TRUE. Summary of other choices: B: FALSE - Incorrect, as Metoclopramide is indeed a dopamine antagonist. C: All - Incorrect, as not all the choices are correct. D: None of the above - Incorrect, as the correct answer is A.
Question 5 of 5
All of the following are compensatory mechanisms that occur during the pathogenesis of congestive heart failure EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An increase in vagal tone. In congestive heart failure, compensatory mechanisms aim to maintain cardiac output. An increase in ventricular end-diastolic volume helps to increase stroke volume. An increase in plasma catecholamines enhances contractility. Increased renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system activity helps to retain fluid and increase preload. However, an increase in vagal tone would actually decrease heart rate and cardiac output, worsening heart failure. Therefore, choice C is not a compensatory mechanism in congestive heart failure.