Which of the following agents is an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 beta2 receptor agonist?

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First Aid Cardiovascular Drugs Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following agents is an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 beta2 receptor agonist?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epinephrine. Epinephrine is an alpha1, alpha2, beta1, and beta2 receptor agonist. It acts on all four types of adrenergic receptors, making it unique among the choices. Methoxamine is a selective alpha1 agonist (A). Albuterol is a beta2 agonist (B). Norepinephrine is an alpha1, alpha2, and beta1 agonist, but not a beta2 agonist (D). Therefore, only epinephrine fits the criteria of being an alpha1, alpha2, beta1, and beta2 receptor agonist.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following hypnotics is preferred in patients with limited hepatic function?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is preferred in patients with limited hepatic function because it undergoes minimal hepatic metabolism, making it less dependent on liver function for elimination. This reduces the risk of drug accumulation and potential toxicity in patients with hepatic impairment. Amobarbital (B), Flurazepam (C), and Pentobarbital (D) are all barbiturates that are extensively metabolized in the liver. Therefore, they are not preferred in patients with limited hepatic function as their metabolism can be impaired, leading to increased drug levels and potential toxicity.

Question 3 of 5

Lamotrigine can be used in the treatment of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Lamotrigine is an antiepileptic drug that is effective in treating partial seizures, absence seizures, and myoclonic seizures. Therefore, the correct answer is D, "All of the above." It works by stabilizing neural membranes and inhibiting glutamate release. It is commonly used as a first-line treatment for various types of seizures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lamotrigine can indeed be used to treat all these seizure types based on its mechanism of action and clinical effectiveness.

Question 4 of 5

The main reason for avoiding the combined administration of levodopa and an inhibitor of both forms of monoamine oxidase is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertensive emergency. When levodopa is combined with an inhibitor of both forms of monoamine oxidase, it can lead to an excessive buildup of catecholamines, causing a hypertensive crisis due to the potentiation of sympathetic effects. This can result in severe hypertension, which can lead to a hypertensive emergency characterized by organ damage and potentially life-threatening complications. Respiratory depression (choice A), acute psychotic reactions (choice C), and cardiovascular collapse and CNS depression (choice D) are not the main risks associated with the combined administration of levodopa and MAO inhibitors.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following metabolic alterations may be associated with chronic alcohol abuse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Severe loss of potassium and magnesium. Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to gastrointestinal issues, causing malabsorption of essential nutrients like potassium and magnesium. This can result in electrolyte imbalances, leading to severe loss of these minerals. Hyperglycemia (A) is not typically associated with chronic alcohol abuse. Increased serum phosphate (B) levels are not commonly seen with alcohol abuse. Decreased serum sodium (D) is not a typical metabolic alteration associated with chronic alcohol abuse.

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