ATI RN
FHEA Drugs That Affect the Cardiovascular System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following agents is a short-acting ganglion blocker?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trimethaphane. Trimethaphane is a short-acting ganglion blocker because it acts quickly to block ganglionic transmission, leading to a rapid onset of action. Homatropine is a muscarinic antagonist used for its anticholinergic effects, not as a ganglion blocker. Hexamethonium is a ganglion blocker, but it is long-acting, not short-acting. Pancuronium is a neuromuscular blocker used for skeletal muscle paralysis, not for ganglionic blockade. Therefore, the correct choice is Trimethaphane due to its fast-acting nature in blocking ganglionic transmission.
Question 2 of 5
The main reason for using alfa-receptor antagonists in the management of pheochromocytoma is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because alpha-receptor antagonists block alpha2 receptors on vascular smooth muscle, preventing vasoconstriction caused by epinephrine and reducing blood pressure in patients with pheochromocytoma. This helps manage symptoms of hypertension and tachycardia associated with excessive catecholamine release. Incorrect choices: A: Alpha-receptor antagonists do not inhibit the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla. C: Alpha-receptor antagonists do not interact with or inhibit beta2 adrenoreceptors. D: Alpha-receptor antagonists do not antagonize the release of renin.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following hypnotics is preferred for elderly patients?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Temazepam. Temazepam is preferred for elderly patients due to its shorter half-life, reduced risk of accumulation, and lower potential for drug interactions compared to other options. Phenobarbital (A) and Secobarbital (D) have long half-lives, leading to increased risk of side effects and drug interactions in the elderly. Flurazepam (B) has a long half-life and can cause residual sedation, increasing the risk of falls and cognitive impairment in the elderly.
Question 4 of 5
Indicate the antiseizure drug, which is a phenyltriazine derivative:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Lamotrigine. Lamotrigine is a phenyltriazine derivative, making it the antiseizure drug in the list. This drug works by stabilizing neuronal membranes and inhibiting voltage-gated sodium channels. Phenobarbital (A) is a barbiturate, Clonazepam (B) is a benzodiazepine, and Carbamazepine (D) is an iminostilbene derivative, not a phenyltriazine derivative like Lamotrigine.
Question 5 of 5
Treatment with selegilin postpones the need for levodopa for 3-9 months and may retard the progression of Parkinson′s disease.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 1. Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase-B inhibitor that can delay the need for levodopa by inhibiting dopamine breakdown. 2. Studies have shown that selegiline can postpone the need for levodopa by 3-9 months. 3. By delaying levodopa initiation, selegiline may slow down the progression of Parkinson's disease. 4. Therefore, the statement that treatment with selegiline postpones the need for levodopa and may retard disease progression is true. Summary: B is incorrect because evidence supports the efficacy of selegiline in delaying levodopa use. C is incorrect as there is a clear correct answer. D is incorrect as not all options are correct, only option A is supported by evidence.