ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following actions is indicated in the management of a patient with an open chest wound (sucking chest wound)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An open chest wound, also known as a sucking chest wound, can lead to a collapsed lung and respiratory distress. Immediate management involves sealing the wound to prevent air from entering the pleural space and further compromising the patient's respiratory function. Applying a sterile dressing over the wound helps to prevent contamination and occluding the wound with an airtight covering, such as an occlusive dressing, can effectively reduce the risk of a tension pneumothorax, a serious complication that can arise from a sucking chest wound. These interventions help to stabilize the patient's condition and improve the chances of a successful recovery. Administering supplemental oxygen, though beneficial, would be secondary to the primary management of sealing the chest wound. Providing emotional support is important but addressing the physical emergency takes precedence. Elevating the patient's legs would not be appropriate in managing an open chest wound.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea and anxiety. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and anxiety, opioid medications are often prioritized by palliative care providers for symptom management. Opioids are effective in relieving dyspnea by acting as respiratory depressants and reducing the feeling of air hunger. Additionally, opioids have sedative effects that can help alleviate anxiety and promote relaxation. Therefore, in this situation, prescribing opioid medications would be the most appropriate intervention to address both the dyspnea and anxiety symptoms simultaneously. Oxygen therapy, relaxation techniques, and breathing exercises may also be useful adjunctive interventions, but opioid medications are typically prioritized for immediate symptom relief in this context.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with symptoms of severe allergies, including difficulty breathing, hives, and swelling. Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for mediating these allergic responses?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Mast cells are primarily responsible for mediating allergic responses such as severe allergies. When an allergen triggers the immune response, mast cells release histamine, leukotrienes, and other inflammatory mediators. These substances cause symptoms such as difficulty breathing, hives, and swelling. Basophils also release histamine, but mast cells are more abundant in tissues and play a significant role in allergic reactions. Eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions but are more focused on combating parasitic infections. Neutrophils are not typically involved in allergic responses but play a key role in combating bacterial infections.
Question 4 of 9
Qualitative researchers should choose their participants who can best meet the objectives of the study, who of the following best qualifies?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When selecting participants for a qualitative research study, it is important to choose individuals who are able to articulate and reflect on the phenomenon being studied. This is crucial for gathering in-depth and rich data that can provide valuable insights for the study. Participants who can express their experiences, thoughts, and feelings clearly will allow the researcher to delve deeper into the research objectives and gain a more comprehensive understanding of the phenomenon under investigation. Selecting individuals with the ability to articulate and reflect ensures that the data collected will be meaningful and contribute significantly to the research findings. It is essential for qualitative researchers to prioritize such participants who can best meet the objectives of the study by offering detailed and insightful perspectives.
Question 5 of 9
Which IMPORTANT Information the nurse should inform the public about rabies?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should inform the public that rabies can be prevented. This is an extremely important piece of information to help raise awareness about the disease and promote preventive measures such as timely vaccination of both animals and humans. Rabies is a deadly viral infection that affects the central nervous system, and prevention through vaccination is highly effective in controlling its spread. By emphasizing the preventability of rabies, the nurse can educate the public on the importance of taking proactive steps to avoid contracting the disease.
Question 6 of 9
Primary care nursing is organized so that the patient is at the center of the structure. How many nurses have 24-hour responsibility for care planning and coordination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In primary care nursing, typically, one nurse is designated to have 24-hour responsibility for care planning and coordination for each patient. This helps ensure continuity of care and accountability. By having one nurse overseeing all aspects of the patient's care, it allows for a more personalized and coordinated approach that puts the patient at the center of the care structure. Having one primary care nurse also promotes better communication, efficiency, and consistency in managing the patient's health and well-being.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following tools used by nurses in the community setting for assessing health needs and problems of families that is similar to family coping index
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nursing diagnosis is the tool used by nurses in the community setting for assessing health needs and problems of families that is similar to the family coping index. Nursing diagnosis involves systematic assessment of a patient's health status, analysis of data, and identification of actual or potential health problems. Just like the family coping index, nursing diagnosis helps nurses to identify key issues and develop a plan of care that addresses the specific needs and challenges faced by the family. This process allows nurses to provide individualized care that supports the family in coping with their health needs and improving their overall well-being.
Question 8 of 9
Before finishing the check up, which of the following principles is NOT included among the principles of guidance in handling Richard?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The principles of guidance in handling Richard involve understanding and addressing the behaviors and needs of the child, such as controlling temper tantrums, basing expectations within the child's limitations, and acceptance of certain behaviors like masturbation as normal but to be discouraged in public. However, reinforcing the correct use of language is not typically included as a principle specifically in handling Richard. Therefore, this choice is NOT included among the principles of guidance in this context.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has been advised by the psychiatrist that he needs inpatient hospitalization. The patient agrees, signs the admission forms, and agrees to receive treatment. What type of admission is this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This type of admission is considered voluntary because the patient willingly agrees to be admitted to the hospital for treatment. The patient has signed the admission forms and consented to receive the necessary care, indicating a willingness to participate in their treatment plan. In a voluntary admission, the individual retains the right to make decisions about their treatment and can choose to leave the hospital against medical advice if they wish to do so.