Which of the following actions is appropriate for managing a conscious patient with a suspected stroke?

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Question 1 of 5

Which of the following actions is appropriate for managing a conscious patient with a suspected stroke?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Activating emergency medical services (EMS) for rapid transport to a stroke center is the most appropriate action for managing a conscious patient with a suspected stroke. Time is critical in stroke care, and receiving specialized treatment at a stroke center as soon as possible can significantly improve outcomes for stroke patients. EMS providers are trained to recognize the signs of stroke and can begin essential pre-hospital care measures while en route to the hospital. Administering aspirin immediately is not recommended without medical evaluation, as certain types of strokes (such as hemorrhagic strokes) can be worsened by aspirin. Placing the patient in a supine position may not be ideal, as maintaining an elevated position can help prevent aspiration in stroke patients. Encouraging the patient to eat and drink is not appropriate, as swallowing difficulties are common in stroke patients and can lead to aspiration pneumonia.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of multiple fluid-filled sacs within the ovaries and is associated with menstrual irregularities and hyperandrogenism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common endocrine disorder in women of reproductive age. It is characterized by the presence of multiple fluid-filled sacs (cysts) within the ovaries, which can be visualized on ultrasound. Women with PCOS often experience menstrual irregularities such as irregular periods or no periods, as well as symptoms of hyperandrogenism like hirsutism (excessive hair growth) and acne. Other common features of PCOS include insulin resistance and obesity. It is important to note that not all women with PCOS will have ovarian cysts, but the presence of multiple cysts is a common finding in this condition.

Question 3 of 5

A patient is exposed to the hepatitis B virus (HBV) and develops immunity against future infections. Which type of immunity is primarily responsible for this protection?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Humoral immunity is primarily responsible for protecting against infections by pathogens like viruses. In the case of the hepatitis B virus (HBV), the individual is exposed to the virus and develops immunity, which is typically mediated by antibodies produced by B cells. These antibodies circulate in the blood and can neutralize the virus, preventing future infections. This type of immunity is known as humoral immunity, as it involves the production of antibodies that target specific antigens, such as those present on the surface of the hepatitis B virus. In contrast, passive immunity is when antibodies are transferred from an external source, innate immunity provides immediate, non-specific defenses against pathogens, and cell-mediated immunity involves the activation of T cells to combat intracellular pathogens.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following cell types is primarily responsible for the production of antibodies during the humoral immune response?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Plasma cells are the primary type of cells responsible for the production of antibodies during the humoral immune response. When activated by antigens, B cells differentiate into plasma cells, which are specialized in producing large quantities of antibodies. These antibodies are essential in fighting off infections by binding to antigens and marking them for destruction by other immune cells. T helper cells assist in activating B cells, but the actual production of antibodies is mainly carried out by plasma cells. Memory B cells are involved in mounting a rapid and specific secondary response upon re-exposure to the same antigen. Macrophages play a role in phagocytosis and antigen presentation, but they are not the primary cells responsible for producing antibodies during the humoral immune response.

Question 5 of 5

A patient is diagnosed with selective IgA deficiency, a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with this condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Selective IgA deficiency is a primary immunodeficiency disorder characterized by low or absent levels of immunoglobulin A (IgA) in the blood. Since IgA plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity and defense against pathogens at mucosal surfaces, individuals with this deficiency are more susceptible to recurrent bacterial infections, particularly of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts. In contrast, severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a more severe immunodeficiency disorder affecting T and B lymphocytes, chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is a disorder of phagocytes, and autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an autoimmune disease involving red blood cells, none of which are directly associated with selective IgA deficiency.

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