ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following actions is appropriate for managing a conscious patient with a foreign object lodged in the eye?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When managing a conscious patient with a foreign object lodged in the eye, the appropriate action is to rinse the eye with sterile saline solution. This helps to flush out the foreign object and reduce the risk of further injury or infection. Attempting to remove the object with tweezers or applying pressure to the eyelid can potentially cause more harm to the eye. Placing a bandage over the affected eye is not beneficial in this situation as it does not address the presence of the foreign object. Rinsing the eye with sterile saline solution is the safest and most effective initial step to take in managing a foreign object lodged in the eye.
Question 2 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage pancreatic cancer experiences severe abdominal pain. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with severe abdominal pain due to end-stage pancreatic cancer, the priority intervention to manage their symptoms would be to provide adequate pain relief. Opioid analgesics are the cornerstone of pain management for cancer patients experiencing severe pain. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system, thereby reducing the perception of pain. Opioids are highly effective in managing cancer pain, including abdominal pain, and can significantly improve the patient's quality of life by providing relief from distressing symptoms. Therefore, administering opioid analgesics should be the nurse's primary intervention in this case to address the patient's severe abdominal pain. Initiating enteral nutrition, recommending hot compresses, or referring to a gastroenterologist may be relevant interventions depending on the patient's overall care plan but addressing the pain should be the immediate priority in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
What drug should the nurse prepare for administration to reverse all signs of toxicity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone, also known by the brand name Narcan, is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, sedation, and other signs of toxicity. Administering naloxone can quickly reverse these effects, restoring the patient's breathing and consciousness. This makes it the appropriate choice for reversing all signs of toxicity related to opioids. Digibind (Digoxin) is used to reverse toxicity from digoxin specifically. Atropine sulfate is used for bradycardia. Diazepam (Valium) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle relaxation, not for reversing toxicity.
Question 4 of 9
How can nurse contribute to the improvement of Maternal and Child Health (MCH) In the Philippines? One way is by knowing the 8 Millennium Development Goals. Which of the TWO of the 8 goals are VERY specific to MCH?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Two of the 8 Millennium Development Goals that are very specific to Maternal and Child Health (MCH) are "Reduce child mortality" and "Improve maternal health." These goals focus directly on the well-being of mothers and children, aiming to decrease child mortality rates and enhance the health of pregnant women.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with a pruritic, eczematous rash with erythematous papules, vesicles, and excoriations on the flexural surfaces of the elbows and knees. The patient reports a personal history of asthma and hay fever. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atopic dermatitis is a chronic, pruritic inflammatory skin condition that typically presents in individuals with a personal or family history of asthma and allergic rhinitis (hay fever). The characteristic presentation includes erythematous papules, vesicles, and excoriations on the flexural surfaces of the elbows and knees. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen in patients with atopy, which refers to a genetic predisposition to develop allergic diseases like asthma, hay fever, and eczema. Therefore, given the patient's personal history of asthma and hay fever along with the described rash distribution and appearance, atopic dermatitis is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech. Symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago but have partially resolved since then. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech that partially resolved within 30 minutes is more consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) rather than an ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke. TIAs are caused by temporary decreases in blood flow to a specific area of the brain, leading to transient neurological deficits that typically last for less than 24 hours. In this case, the symptoms partially resolving suggest a temporary and reversible ischemic event, characteristic of a TIA. Ischemic strokes involve more prolonged or permanent impairment due to blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, while hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding within the brain tissue or the surrounding membranes.
Question 7 of 9
The APPROPRIATE nursing diagnosis to protect the patient from further injury is, which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Patients with thrombocytopenia are at risk for injury due to potential bleeding complications. Therefore, the appropriate nursing diagnosis to protect the patient from further injury in this case would be "Risk for injury related to thrombocytopenia." This nursing diagnosis allows the nurse to assess for signs of bleeding, implement interventions to prevent injury, and closely monitor the patient's platelet levels to prevent complications.
Question 8 of 9
Which assessment findings is INDICATIVE of the diagnosis of hypertension?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The assessment finding that is indicative of the diagnosis of hypertension is consistent evaluation of blood pressure. Hypertension is diagnosed based on repeated measurements of elevated blood pressure. Consistently high blood pressure readings, usually defined as systolic blood pressure consistently at or above 140 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure consistently at or above 90 mmHg, are a key factor in diagnosing hypertension. Family history of high blood pressure (Choice A), elevation of blood cholesterol level (Choice B), and a stressful work environment (Choice C) may be risk factors for hypertension but are not diagnostic criteria. In order to diagnose hypertension, healthcare providers rely on consistent measurement and evaluation of blood pressure over time.
Question 9 of 9
Baby Sharon was placed on phototherapy. What precaution should Nurses Juvy observe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a baby is placed on phototherapy, especially for treating jaundice, it is crucial for the nurses to put sunglasses on the newborn to protect their eyes. Phototherapy involves exposing the baby's skin to certain types of light to help break down the bilirubin causing the jaundice. However, this light can be harmful to the baby's sensitive eyes, potentially leading to eye damage or other eye-related issues if not protected adequately. Therefore, placing sunglasses on the newborn is a necessary precaution to ensure the safety and well-being of the baby's eyes during the treatment.