ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following about a newborn infant is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the frontal sinuses are indeed fairly well developed at birth. This is true as the frontal sinuses start developing around the age of 7-8 years but are present in a rudimentary form at birth. This is because the frontal bone grows rapidly in the first few years of life, allowing for the development of the frontal sinuses. Choice A is incorrect because the sphenoid sinuses are not at full size at birth; they continue to develop throughout childhood. Choice B is incorrect as the maxillary sinuses reach full size around the teenage years, not after puberty. Choice D is incorrect as the frontal sinuses are also present at birth, along with the maxillary and ethmoid sinuses.
Question 2 of 9
A mother brings her 4-month-old to the clinic with concerns about a small padlike growth on the mid- upper lip that has been present since the baby was 1 month old. The infant has no health problems. On physical examination, the nurse notes a 5-cm, fleshy, elevated area on the mid-upper lip. There is no evidence of inflammation or drainage. What would the nurse tell this mother?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a sucking tubercle is a normal finding in infants caused by friction during breastfeeding or bottle feeding. The growth is typically painless, noninflammatory, and resolves on its own over time. This explanation reassures the mother that the condition is harmless and does not require any specific treatment. Choice A is incorrect because teething does not cause a sucking tubercle. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of abnormality that warrants specialist evaluation. Choice C is incorrect because chronic drooling does not typically result in a sucking tubercle.
Question 3 of 9
During the assessment of an infant, the nurse notes that the fontanelles are depressed and sunken. Which condition does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dehydration. Depressed and sunken fontanelles in an infant indicate dehydration due to decreased fluid volume. Dehydration causes a decrease in tissue turgor, leading to the fontanelles appearing sunken. Rickets (A) is a condition characterized by weak or soft bones due to vitamin D deficiency. Mental retardation (C) is a developmental disorder, not related to fontanelle appearance. Increased intracranial pressure (D) would cause bulging fontanelles, not depressed fontanelles. Therefore, the most likely condition in this case is dehydration.
Question 4 of 9
Which areas are most important to address for a client in Buck's traction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Nutrition is important for healing and energy. Step 2: Elimination is crucial for bowel and bladder function. Step 3: Comfort ensures the client's well-being. Step 4: Safety prevents complications. Step 5: ROM exercises can prevent muscle atrophy. Step 6: Transportation and isotonic exercises are not immediate priorities.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with a history of stroke about reducing the risk of another stroke. Which of the following lifestyle changes should the nurse emphasize?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. This is the best choice because reducing the risk of another stroke requires a holistic approach. A: Limiting sodium and cholesterol intake helps manage blood pressure and cholesterol levels, reducing the risk of stroke. B: Increasing physical activity and managing weight can improve cardiovascular health and overall well-being, reducing the risk of stroke. C: Taking prescribed medications regularly, such as blood thinners or antihypertensives, is crucial in preventing another stroke. In summary, all three choices address key risk factors for stroke prevention, making them essential components of a comprehensive stroke prevention plan.
Question 6 of 9
A patient's vision is recorded as 20/80 in each eye. The nurse recognizes that this finding indicates:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: poor vision. In the 20/80 visual acuity notation, 20 represents the test distance in feet, and 80 represents the line on the eye chart that the patient can read. Therefore, a person with 20/80 vision can only see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 80 feet. This indicates poor vision as the patient's visual acuity is significantly below normal. Summary: - Choice B (acute vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision indicates poor vision, not exceptional sharpness. - Choice C (normal vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision is below normal range. - Choice D (presbyopia) is incorrect as presbyopia is a condition related to aging and difficulty focusing on close objects, not specifically indicated by 20/80 vision.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is assessing the hearing of a 7-month-old. What would be the expected response to clapping of hands?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because at 7 months, infants typically have developed the ability to localize sounds. When clapping hands, the expected response is for the infant to turn their head towards the sound source, indicating their ability to detect and localize the sound. This behavior reflects the normal auditory development at this age. Choice B is incorrect because by 7 months, infants should show some response to noise, such as turning their head or showing some interest. Choice C is incorrect as the startle and acoustic blink reflex typically occur in response to sudden loud noises, but at 7 months, the infant should also be able to localize the source of the sound. Choice D is incorrect as stopping all movement and appearing to listen is not a typical response expected from a 7-month-old when hearing a sound. Infants at this age are more likely to actively turn towards the sound source to investigate.
Question 8 of 9
What should the nurse do when a client develops severe shortness of breath after surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. This is the priority intervention to address severe shortness of breath, ensuring the client receives adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen helps improve oxygen saturation levels and supports respiratory function. Encouraging deep breathing (B) may exacerbate the client's distress. Elevating the head of the bed (C) can help improve breathing but does not address the immediate need for oxygen. Administering antibiotics (D) is not indicated for shortness of breath unless there is an underlying infection causing it.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: 1. Using the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles is safe because it ensures even heating without creating hot spots that could burn the baby's mouth. 2. This method helps to preserve the nutrients in the breast milk or formula. 3. It is important to warm the bottle to body temperature to mimic the natural feel of breast milk for the baby's comfort. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Feeding the baby partially used bottles after 24 hours can increase the risk of bacterial contamination and foodborne illness. C: Mixing two parts water and one part concentrate for formula concentrate is incorrect as it may dilute the formula, leading to inadequate nutrition for the baby. D: Adding new formula to partially used bottles can alter the balance of nutrients and increase the risk of contamination, affecting the baby's health.