ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following about a newborn infant is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the frontal sinuses are indeed fairly well developed at birth. This is true as the frontal sinuses start developing around the age of 7-8 years but are present in a rudimentary form at birth. This is because the frontal bone grows rapidly in the first few years of life, allowing for the development of the frontal sinuses. Choice A is incorrect because the sphenoid sinuses are not at full size at birth; they continue to develop throughout childhood. Choice B is incorrect as the maxillary sinuses reach full size around the teenage years, not after puberty. Choice D is incorrect as the frontal sinuses are also present at birth, along with the maxillary and ethmoid sinuses.
Question 2 of 9
A mother brings her child in to the clinic for scalp and hair examination. She says that the child has developed irregularly shaped patches on her head with broken-off, stublike hair, and she is worried that this could be some form of premature baldness. She tells the nurse that the child's hair is always kept very short. The nurse reassures her by telling her that it is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: trichotillomania, which may be caused by her child habitually twirling her hair in an absent-minded way. Trichotillomania is a psychological disorder where individuals have an irresistible urge to pull out their hair. In this case, the broken-off, stublike hair and irregularly shaped patches on the child's head are indicative of hair pulling rather than a medical condition like folliculitis (choice A), traumatic alopecia (choice B), or tinea capitis (choice C). The child's hair being kept very short does not align with the characteristic of these conditions, making trichotillomania the most likely explanation.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is performing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notes that his nasal mucosa appears pale, grey, and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Are you aware of having any allergies?" This question is appropriate because the patient's symptoms of pale, grey, and swollen nasal mucosa suggest an allergic reaction. By asking about allergies, the nurse can gather important information to determine the cause of the symptoms. B: "Do you have an elevated temperature?" - This question is not directly related to the patient's nasal symptoms and does not address the likely allergic reaction. C: "Have you had any symptoms of a cold?" - While cold symptoms may present similarly to allergies, the patient's specific symptoms of pale, grey, and swollen nasal mucosa are more indicative of an allergic reaction. D: "Have you been having frequent nosebleeds?" - This question does not directly address the patient's current symptoms and is not likely related to the nasal mucosa appearance described.
Question 4 of 9
A 32-year-old woman is at the clinic for a checkup, and she states,"I have little white bumps in my mouth." During the assessment, the nurse notes that she has a 5-cm white, nontender papule under her tongue and one on the mucosa of her right cheek. Which of the following would the nurse tell the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Fordyce's granules are small, yellow-white or flesh-colored spots that are sebaceous glands and commonly found on the oral mucosa. They are benign and do not require treatment. In this case, the patient's description matches the characteristics of Fordyce's granules. Option A is incorrect because strep throat typically presents with other symptoms like sore throat and fever, not white bumps in the mouth. Option B is incorrect as there is no indication of a serious lesion based on the description given. Option C is incorrect as leukoplakia is a condition associated with chronic irritation, not Fordyce's granules.
Question 5 of 9
An 85-year-old female patient is complaining about the fact that the bones in her face have become more noticeable. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because as individuals age, there is a natural decrease in skin elasticity, subcutaneous fat, and moisture content in the skin. These factors contribute to the bones becoming more noticeable in the face. Choice A is incorrect because diets low in protein and high in carbohydrates do not directly cause enlargement of facial bones. Choice B is incorrect as the use of a specific moisturizer does not directly impact the visibility of facial bones. Choice D is incorrect because facial skin actually loses elasticity with age, leading to less taut skin and more prominent bones.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is conducting an eye clinic at the day care centre. When examining a 2-year-old child, if"lazy eye" is suspected, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because testing for strabismus by performing the corneal light reflex test is crucial in diagnosing "lazy eye" or amblyopia in children. Strabismus is a condition where the eyes are misaligned, leading to poor vision in one eye. By performing the corneal light reflex test, the nurse can assess if the child's eyes are aligned or if there is deviation, which could indicate lazy eye. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically address the assessment of strabismus, which is the key indicator for lazy eye in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A 92-year-old patient has had a stroke, and the right side of his face is drooping. What else would the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dysphagia. In a stroke patient with right-sided facial drooping, dysphagia is highly likely due to the involvement of the facial nerve, leading to difficulty swallowing. Epistaxis (A) is nosebleeds, agenesis (B) is the absence of a body part, and xerostomia (D) is dry mouth, which are not directly related to facial drooping in stroke patients. Dysphagia is a common complication post-stroke due to impaired muscle control, making it the most likely concern for the nurse to suspect in this case.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse suspects that a patient has hyperthyroidism, and laboratory data also indicate that the patient's T and T hormone levels are elevated. Which of the following would the nurse most likely find on 4 3 examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A (Tachycardia) is correct: 1. Hyperthyroidism leads to increased production of thyroid hormones. 2. Thyroid hormones can increase metabolic rate and heart rate. 3. Tachycardia is a common symptom of hyperthyroidism due to increased metabolic demand. 4. Therefore, the nurse would most likely find tachycardia on examination in a patient with hyperthyroidism. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Constipation - Constipation is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. C: Rapid dyspnea - Dyspnea (shortness of breath) is not a typical symptom of hyperthyroidism. D: Atrophied, nodular thyroid - Hyperthyroidism often presents with an enlarged, not atrophied, thyroid gland due to overactivity. Nodules may be present in conditions like thyroid cancer, but not specific to hyper
Question 9 of 9
A physician tells the nurse that a patient's vertebra prominens is tender and asks the nurse to reevaluate the area in 1 hour. The area of the body the nurse will assess will be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: at the level of the C7 vertebra. The vertebra prominens refers to the spinous process of the C7 vertebra, which is the most prominent bony landmark at the base of the neck. Assessing this area allows the nurse to accurately locate and evaluate tenderness reported by the physician. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the location of the vertebra prominens. Option A is too high, above the diaphragm; option B is too low, lateral to the knee cap; and option D is too low, at the level of the T11 vertebra.