ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff. would the nurse explain to a patient is the main purpose of a hearing aid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Improve ability to hear. A hearing aid is designed to improve a person's ability to hear by amplifying sound. This helps individuals with hearing loss to better understand speech and sounds in their environment. A: Amplifying background noise is not the main purpose of a hearing aid. It may actually hinder the user's ability to focus on important sounds. B: Amplifying musical sounds is not the primary function of a hearing aid. The main focus is on improving speech understanding. C: Occluding the ear is not the purpose of a hearing aid. It is meant to enhance hearing, not block sound.
Question 2 of 9
The most likely cause of her chief complaint this morning is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because polyuria is a common complication of hypophysectomy, the surgical removal of the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in regulating water balance in the body, and its removal can lead to excessive urine production. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in stress does not typically cause polyuria, diabetes mellitus is not an immediate complication of surgery, and polyuria is not an expected result of pituitary gland removal.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse performs an assessment of a client in a long-term care facility and records baseline data. The nurse reassesses the client a month later and makes revisions in the plan of care. What type of assessment is the second assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Time-lapsed assessment. This type of assessment involves comparing baseline data with new data collected at a later time to evaluate changes in the client's condition. In this scenario, the nurse is reassessing the client a month later to determine if there have been any changes that require adjustments to the care plan. A: Comprehensive assessment is an in-depth assessment done initially to gather detailed information about the client's overall health status. B: Focused assessment is done to gather specific information related to a particular problem or issue. D: Emergency assessment is performed in urgent situations to quickly identify and address life-threatening conditions.
Question 4 of 9
A client has been diagnosed with renal failure and is admitted for dialysis. Which of the ff is the nurse’s responsibility as the client undergone dialysis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weighing the client before and after the procedure. This is crucial as it helps monitor fluid removal during dialysis, ensuring the process is effective and safe. Weighing helps determine if the correct amount of fluid has been removed. A: Keeping dialysis supplies in a clean area is important for infection control but not a direct responsibility during the procedure. B: Inspecting the catheter insertion site for signs of infection is essential for monitoring the site's health but not a direct responsibility during dialysis. D: Washing hands before and after handling the catheter is a general infection control measure but not specific to the dialysis procedure itself.
Question 5 of 9
Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is mainly found in animal-based foods like meats and seafood. Meats, particularly red meats, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain zinc. Legumes (Choice C) are sources of other minerals but not high in zinc. Fruits and vegetables (Choices A and B) are not significant sources of zinc. The correct answer provides the best options for the cancer patient to obtain an adequate amount of zinc for recovery.
Question 6 of 9
A client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12g/m2 IV to treat osteogenic carcinoma. During methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to receive which other drug to protect normal cells?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Leucovorin. Leucovorin is administered with methotrexate to protect normal cells from methotrexate toxicity by acting as a "rescue" agent. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, leading to decreased levels of tetrahydrofolate needed for DNA synthesis. Leucovorin bypasses this step by directly providing the reduced form of folic acid, thus preventing toxicity in normal cells. Probenecid (choice A) is not used to protect normal cells during methotrexate therapy. Cytarabine (choice B) and Thioguanine (choice C) are not rescue agents for methotrexate toxicity.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff. statements does the nurse understand is true concerning air conduction of sound in the ear?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because air conduction is less efficient than bone conduction due to the sound waves traveling through the air in the ear canal, which can be hindered by factors like blockages or obstructions. This results in a weaker and less clear sound transmission compared to bone conduction, where sound waves are transmitted directly through the bones of the skull, bypassing any potential obstructions in the ear canal. Incorrect choices: A: This statement is incorrect as air conduction of sound in the ear is not caused by the vibration of bones in the skull. C: This statement is incorrect as air conduction is typically heard for a shorter duration than bone conduction. D: This statement is incorrect as air conduction of sound in the ear is not caused by the transmission of heat through the air, but rather by sound waves traveling through the ear canal.
Question 8 of 9
A hospitalized client has the following blood lab values: WBC 3,000/ul, RBC 5.0 (X 106), platelets 300, 000, what would be a priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preventing infection. With a low WBC count of 3,000/ul, the client is at high risk for infection due to compromised immune function. Priority is to prevent infection by implementing strict infection control measures, such as hand hygiene, sterile techniques, and isolation precautions. Alleviating pain (B) would be important but not the priority in this case. Controlling infection (C) is similar to preventing infection and would be a secondary intervention. Monitoring blood transfusion reactions (D) is not relevant to the client's current lab values.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. This type of assessment approach involves starting with a broad overview of the patient's condition and then narrowing down to specific details. In this scenario, the nurse begins by examining the surgical dressing, which is a specific aspect of the patient's condition, after which they can proceed to gather more detailed information about the drainage, wound healing, and any associated symptoms. This approach allows the nurse to systematically assess the patient's postoperative status and identify any potential issues. A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns is a comprehensive framework for organizing patient data, but it does not specifically address the sequence of assessment in this scenario. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's activity level and exercise habits, which is not the primary concern in this situation. D: Problem-oriented assessment involves identifying and addressing specific health problems, but it does not capture the systematic progression from general to specific assessment as seen in this scenario.