ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff. would the nurse explain to a patient is the main purpose of a hearing aid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Improve ability to hear. A hearing aid is designed to improve a person's ability to hear by amplifying sound. This helps individuals with hearing loss to better understand speech and sounds in their environment. A: Amplifying background noise is not the main purpose of a hearing aid. It may actually hinder the user's ability to focus on important sounds. B: Amplifying musical sounds is not the primary function of a hearing aid. The main focus is on improving speech understanding. C: Occluding the ear is not the purpose of a hearing aid. It is meant to enhance hearing, not block sound.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is starting with a broad assessment of the surgical dressing and the type of drainage present, then will progress to more specific assessments based on the findings. This approach allows for a systematic and comprehensive evaluation of the patient's condition by moving from general observations to detailed examinations. Explanation: 1. General assessment: The nurse is initially assessing the overall appearance of the surgical dressing and the type of drainage. 2. Specific assessment: Based on the initial findings, the nurse will proceed to conduct more focused assessments, such as checking for signs of infection, monitoring vital signs, and assessing the surgical site for any complications. Other choices are incorrect: A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns - This framework focuses on assessing different aspects of an individual's health patterns, such as activity level, sleep patterns, and coping mechanisms. It is not the most appropriate approach in this situation. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment - This type of assessment focuses
Question 3 of 9
A client who is receiving cyclosporine (Sandimmune) must practice good oral hygiene, including regular brushing and flossing of the teeth, to minimize gingival hyperplasia during long-term therapy with certain drugs. Which of the following drug falls into this category?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenytoin (Dilantin). Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, which can be minimized with good oral hygiene practices. Procainamide, Azathioprine, and Allopurinol are not associated with gingival hyperplasia. Therefore, the client receiving cyclosporine should focus on practicing good oral hygiene specifically when taking Phenytoin to minimize the risk of developing gingival hyperplasia.
Question 4 of 9
When performing a neurological examination on Mr. RR, which of the following would not be considered an important or useful part of the examination?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because pupil size is not typically a part of a routine neurological examination. A: Eye movements are assessed to evaluate cranial nerve functions. B: Reflexes help determine the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nervous system. C: Nuchal rigidity is important to assess for signs of meningitis or other neurological conditions. In contrast, pupil size is more relevant in ophthalmological examinations or when assessing response to specific medications affecting the pupil size.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following illustrates a common error when writing client outcomes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it does not provide a specific, measurable outcome. It is vague and subjective, making it difficult to assess and track progress. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are all specific, measurable, and time-bound goals, making them more effective for evaluating client outcomes. Choice A specifies the amount of fluid intake and the time frame, choice B sets a clear deadline for demonstrating a skill, and choice D outlines a specific task to be completed upon discharge. Therefore, C is the correct answer as it lacks the clear criteria needed for effective outcome evaluation.
Question 6 of 9
During the physical examination of a client for a possible neurologic disorder, how can the nurse examine the client for stiffness and rigidity of the neck?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. To examine stiffness and rigidity of the neck, the nurse should move the client's head and chin toward the chest. This maneuver assesses for resistance and limitation in neck flexion, which can indicate stiffness and rigidity commonly seen in neurologic disorders like meningitis or cervical dystonia. A: Positioning the client flat on the bed for hours does not specifically target neck stiffness and rigidity. C: Asking the client to bend and pick up objects assesses motor function, not neck stiffness. D: Introducing a painful stimulus is not a standard or appropriate method for examining neck stiffness and rigidity.
Question 7 of 9
Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse caring for a client in severe pain receiving a continuous I.V. infusion of morphine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtaining baseline vital signs before administering the first dose. This intervention is crucial to establish the client's baseline condition before starting morphine therapy. Baseline vital signs provide a comparison for monitoring the client's response to the medication and detecting any adverse effects. This step ensures the nurse can identify and address any potential complications promptly. Other choices are incorrect: A: Assisting with a naloxone challenge test before therapy begins - Naloxone challenge test is used to diagnose opioid dependence, not appropriate for monitoring pain management. B: Discontinuing the drug immediately if signs of dependence appear - Abrupt discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be managed gradually. C: Changing the administration route to P.O. if the client can tolerate fluids - Changing the route of administration should be based on clinical indications, not solely on the client's ability to tolerate fluids.
Question 8 of 9
Clients with myastherda gravis, Guillain - Barre Syndrome or amyothrophic sclerosis experience:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of respiratory complications. Clients with myasthenia gravis, Guillain-Barre Syndrome, or amyotrophic lateral sclerosis all experience muscle weakness, including respiratory muscles, leading to a higher risk of respiratory complications such as difficulty breathing or respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the neuromuscular system in these conditions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly correlate with the respiratory complications commonly seen in these specific neuromuscular disorders.
Question 9 of 9
Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is mainly found in animal-based foods like meats and seafood. Meats, particularly red meats, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain zinc. Legumes (Choice C) are sources of other minerals but not high in zinc. Fruits and vegetables (Choices A and B) are not significant sources of zinc. The correct answer provides the best options for the cancer patient to obtain an adequate amount of zinc for recovery.