ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff symptoms should a nurse assess in a client when implementing interventions for trauma to the upper airway?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Presence of laryngospasm. Laryngospasm is a serious complication of trauma to the upper airway that can lead to airway obstruction. Assessing for laryngospasm is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Pain when talking (A) is more related to vocal cord injury, increased nasal swelling (B) is a symptom of nasal trauma, and burning in the throat (C) may indicate pharyngeal injury, but laryngospasm (D) directly affects airway patency in upper airway trauma cases.
Question 2 of 9
Nurse Melanie is teaching an adult class about the different types of hepatitis. Which statement does not pertain to hepatitis A?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hepatitis A is caused by a virus from the Picornaviridae family, not the enterovirus family. Hepatitis A spreads through contaminated food or water, not through sexual contact. It is true that hepatitis A occurs worldwide in areas with poor sanitation, but the virus is not from the enterovirus family. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they all pertain to hepatitis A characteristics.
Question 3 of 9
Which part of the brain controls breathing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medulla. The medulla is located in the brainstem and plays a crucial role in controlling involuntary functions like breathing. It contains the respiratory center, which regulates the rate and depth of breathing. The medulla sends signals to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles to control breathing. The cerebrum (B) is responsible for higher brain functions, not breathing control. The cerebellum (C) coordinates movement and balance, not breathing. The thalamus (D) relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex, not involved in breathing regulation.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is preparing to carry out interventions. Which resources will the nurse make sure are available? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Equipment. The nurse needs to ensure that necessary equipment is available to carry out interventions effectively and safely. Without the right equipment, the nurse may not be able to provide appropriate care. Safe environment (B) is important but not a resource that the nurse makes sure is available. Confidence (C) is a personal attribute and not a resource. Assistive personnel (D) are individuals who can help but are not resources that the nurse ensures are available.
Question 5 of 9
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Choice C: 1. Safety First: Recording vital signs is crucial for patient safety. Asking the NAP to record vital signs ensures the patient's condition is monitored before administering medications. 2. Accountability: Nurses are responsible for ensuring accurate documentation of vital signs. Asking the NAP to record them maintains accountability within the healthcare team. 3. Communication: By requesting the NAP to record vital signs, the nurse fosters effective communication and collaboration in patient care. Summary of Other Choices: A: Administering medications without reviewing vital signs could lead to adverse effects if there are abnormalities. B: Reviewing vital signs upon return delays immediate action and could jeopardize patient safety. D: Omitting vital signs neglects the essential monitoring required for patient care and could result in missed opportunities for early intervention.
Question 6 of 9
As part of primary cancer prevention program, an oncology nurse answers questions from the public at health fair. When someone asks about the laryngeal cancer, the nurse should explain that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Laryngeal cancer is one of the most preventable types of cancer. This is because the primary risk factors for laryngeal cancer are largely related to lifestyle choices such as smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and exposure to certain occupational hazards. By avoiding these risk factors, individuals can significantly reduce their chances of developing laryngeal cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Inhaling polluted air isn’t a risk factor for laryngeal cancer - This is incorrect as exposure to polluted air can contribute to the development of laryngeal cancer. C: Laryngeal cancer occurs primarily in women - This is incorrect as laryngeal cancer occurs more frequently in men than in women. D: Adenocarcinoma accounts for most cases of laryngeal cancer - This is incorrect as squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of laryngeal cancer, not adenocarcin
Question 7 of 9
A nurse conducts an assessment and notes that the client has abnormal breath sounds, a productive cough, and cyanotic lips. How should the nurse categorize these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Objective data. Abnormal breath sounds, a productive cough, and cyanotic lips are all observable and measurable findings that can be verified by the nurse through assessment. Objective data refers to information that can be observed or measured, providing concrete evidence of the client's condition. In this case, the nurse directly perceives these physical signs during the assessment, making them objective data. Summary: - A: Subjective data involves the client's feelings or opinions, which are not directly observable by the nurse. - C: Secondary data are information obtained from other sources, not directly from the client. - D: Primary data are firsthand information collected directly from the client, but in this scenario, the findings are observable physical signs, making them objective data.
Question 8 of 9
An adult is being taught about a healthy diet. How can the food pyramid help guide the client on his diet?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: By suggesting daily food choices. The food pyramid helps guide a client's diet by recommending the types and proportions of food to consume daily, such as fruits, vegetables, grains, protein, and dairy. It does not specify exact servings (A), calculate calories (B), or divide food into only four basic groups (D). The pyramid is a visual representation of a balanced diet, emphasizing variety and moderation.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is teaching the client about risk factors for diabetes mellitus. Which of the following risk factors for diabetes mellitus is nonmodifiable?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Define nonmodifiable risk factors - these are factors that cannot be changed or controlled by the individual. Step 2: Advanced age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is determined by genetics and time. Step 3: Poor control of blood glucose levels, foot trauma, and inappropriate foot care are modifiable risk factors that can be managed through lifestyle changes or medical interventions. Summary: Choice D is correct because advanced age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for diabetes mellitus, while the other choices involve factors that can be modified through appropriate actions.