ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff symptoms should a nurse assess in a client when implementing interventions for trauma to the upper airway?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Presence of laryngospasm. Laryngospasm is a serious complication of trauma to the upper airway that can lead to airway obstruction. Assessing for laryngospasm is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Pain when talking (A) is more related to vocal cord injury, increased nasal swelling (B) is a symptom of nasal trauma, and burning in the throat (C) may indicate pharyngeal injury, but laryngospasm (D) directly affects airway patency in upper airway trauma cases.
Question 2 of 9
A client who is scheduled for a parathyroidectomy is worried about having to wear a scarf around his neck after surgery. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse document in the care plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disturbed body image related to the incision scar. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate as the client's concern about wearing a scarf post-surgery indicates a potential disturbance in body image due to the visible scar. The nurse should address the client's emotional response and offer support to help cope with the change in appearance. A: Risk for impaired physical mobility due to surgery - This choice is not directly related to the client's worry about wearing a scarf and focuses more on physical limitations post-surgery. B: Ineffective denial related to poor coping mechanisms - This choice does not address the specific body image concern expressed by the client. D: Risk of injury related to surgical outcomes - This choice does not address the client's emotional response to the scar and focuses on physical safety risks instead.
Question 3 of 9
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approved diagnosis must meet specific criteria related to patient assessment data, defining characteristics, and related factors. Acute pain is a well-defined nursing diagnosis with specific defining characteristics and related factors, making it a suitable and approved option for inclusion in a patient's care plan. Sore throat, sleep apnea, and heart failure do not meet the criteria for a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as they lack the specificity and comprehensive assessment data required for a nursing diagnosis.
Question 4 of 9
Wilma, His sister and a nurse is suctioning the tracheostomy tube of James. Which of the following, if made by Wilma indicates that she is committing an error?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hyperventilating James with 100% oxygen before and after suctioning can lead to oxygen toxicity. The rationale is as follows: 1. Hyperventilation with 100% oxygen can lead to increased oxygen levels in the blood, potentially causing oxygen toxicity. 2. Oxygen toxicity can result in lung damage and other complications. 3. It is not recommended to administer 100% oxygen continuously, especially in high concentrations. Therefore, Wilma committing an error by hyperventilating James with 100% oxygen. Other choices are incorrect because B is a common practice to help loosen secretions, C is correct suctioning technique, and D is a reasonable frequency for suctioning depending on the client's condition.
Question 5 of 9
One of the complications of prolonged bed rest is decubitus ulcer. Which of the following can best prevent its occurrence?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Turn frequently every 2 hours. This helps redistribute pressure, preventing constant pressure on one area and reducing the risk of developing pressure ulcers. Turning every 2 hours promotes circulation and relieves pressure points. A: Massaging reddened areas can worsen the condition by increasing friction and pressure. B: While a special water mattress can help in preventing pressure ulcers, turning frequently is more effective. D: Keeping the skin clean and dry is important for overall skin health but may not directly prevent pressure ulcers.
Question 6 of 9
What is the primary purpose of validation as a part of assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of validation in assessment is to ensure that the data collected is accurate and reliable to plan appropriate nursing care. Validation helps confirm the accuracy of data, identify inconsistencies, and ensure that the information gathered is trustworthy. By verifying the data, nurses can make informed decisions and tailor individualized care plans to meet the patient's needs effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the purpose of validation in assessment. Choice A focuses on the identification of data, not the purpose of validation. Choice B and C pertain to communication and relationships, which are important but not the primary purpose of validation in the assessment process.
Question 7 of 9
Nurse Melanie is teaching an adult class about the different types of hepatitis. Which statement does not pertain to hepatitis A?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hepatitis A is caused by a virus from the Picornaviridae family, not the enterovirus family. Hepatitis A spreads through contaminated food or water, not through sexual contact. It is true that hepatitis A occurs worldwide in areas with poor sanitation, but the virus is not from the enterovirus family. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they all pertain to hepatitis A characteristics.
Question 8 of 9
An adult is diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation. The nurse should identify that the client is at risk for which of the following nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alteration in tissue perfusion related to bleeding and diminished blood flow. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition where blood clots form throughout the body, leading to both bleeding and clotting. This can result in decreased blood flow to tissues, causing tissue perfusion issues. Explanation: 1. Option A: Risk for increased cardiac output related to fluid volume excess is incorrect because DIC can lead to bleeding, causing a decrease in blood volume and potentially decreasing cardiac output. 2. Option B: Disturbed sensory perception related to bleeding into tissues is incorrect as DIC primarily affects blood clotting and bleeding, not sensory perception. 3. Option D: Risk for aspiration related to constriction of the respiratory musculature is incorrect as DIC does not directly cause constriction of respiratory muscles, but rather impacts the clotting and bleeding processes in the body. In summary, the correct answer is C because DIC can lead to altered tissue perfusion
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is preparing to carry out interventions. Which resources will the nurse make sure are available? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Equipment. The nurse needs to ensure that necessary equipment is available to carry out interventions effectively and safely. Without the right equipment, the nurse may not be able to provide appropriate care. Safe environment (B) is important but not a resource that the nurse makes sure is available. Confidence (C) is a personal attribute and not a resource. Assistive personnel (D) are individuals who can help but are not resources that the nurse ensures are available.