ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff symptoms should a nurse assess in a client when implementing interventions for trauma to the upper airway?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Presence of laryngospasm. Laryngospasm is a serious complication of trauma to the upper airway that can lead to airway obstruction. Assessing for laryngospasm is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Pain when talking (A) is more related to vocal cord injury, increased nasal swelling (B) is a symptom of nasal trauma, and burning in the throat (C) may indicate pharyngeal injury, but laryngospasm (D) directly affects airway patency in upper airway trauma cases.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is teaching a new nurse about protocols. Which information from the new nurse indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because protocols are indeed guidelines that assist clinicians in decision-making and choosing interventions for specific health care problems. This definition accurately reflects the purpose and function of protocols in nursing practice. Option B is incorrect as it describes protocols as policies related to nurses' duties and standards of care, which is more aligned with job descriptions and policies rather than protocols. Option C is incorrect as it relates protocols to a code of ethics, which is a separate concept that guides ethical decision-making and behavior in nursing practice. Option D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes protocols as prescriptive order forms, which are actually separate from protocols and are used for medication administration and treatment orders.
Question 3 of 9
A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup for suspected thyroid cancer. What is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Papillary carcinoma. This is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults, accounting for about 80% of cases. It is typically slow-growing and has a good prognosis. Papillary carcinoma arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Follicular carcinoma (choice A) is less common than papillary carcinoma and arises from the follicular cells as well. Anaplastic carcinoma (choice B) is a highly aggressive and rare form of thyroid cancer. Medullary carcinoma (choice C) originates from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland and is not as common as papillary carcinoma. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is D, papillary carcinoma, due to its high prevalence and relatively favorable prognosis.
Question 4 of 9
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approved diagnosis must meet specific criteria related to patient assessment data, defining characteristics, and related factors. Acute pain is a well-defined nursing diagnosis with specific defining characteristics and related factors, making it a suitable and approved option for inclusion in a patient's care plan. Sore throat, sleep apnea, and heart failure do not meet the criteria for a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as they lack the specificity and comprehensive assessment data required for a nursing diagnosis.
Question 5 of 9
Clients with myastherda gravis, Guillain - Barre Syndrome or amyothrophic sclerosis experience:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of respiratory complications. Clients with myasthenia gravis, Guillain-Barre Syndrome, or amyotrophic lateral sclerosis may experience respiratory muscle weakness, leading to difficulty breathing and an increased risk of respiratory complications such as pneumonia or respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the muscles responsible for breathing in these conditions. Progressive deterioration until death (A) is not always the case and varies depending on the condition and individual. Deficiencies of essential neurotransmitters (B) is not a common symptom in these conditions. Involuntary twitching of small muscle groups (D) is not a characteristic symptom of these neurological disorders.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse conducts an assessment and notes that the client has abnormal breath sounds, a productive cough, and cyanotic lips. How should the nurse categorize these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Objective data. Abnormal breath sounds, a productive cough, and cyanotic lips are all observable and measurable findings that can be verified by the nurse through assessment. Objective data refers to information that can be observed or measured, providing concrete evidence of the client's condition. In this case, the nurse directly perceives these physical signs during the assessment, making them objective data. Summary: - A: Subjective data involves the client's feelings or opinions, which are not directly observable by the nurse. - C: Secondary data are information obtained from other sources, not directly from the client. - D: Primary data are firsthand information collected directly from the client, but in this scenario, the findings are observable physical signs, making them objective data.
Question 7 of 9
An adult is on a clear liquid diet. Which food item can be offered/
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jello. A clear liquid diet includes transparent liquids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Jello meets this criteria as it is a clear, easily digestible food. Milk (A) is not allowed on a clear liquid diet due to its opaque nature. Orange juice (B) contains pulp and is not considered clear. Ice cream (D) is a solid food and not permitted on a clear liquid diet. Therefore, Jello is the most suitable option for someone on a clear liquid diet.
Question 8 of 9
A patient’s plan of care includes the goal of increasing mobility this shift. As the patient is ambulating to the bathroom at the beginning of the shift, the patient suffers a fall. Which initial action will the nurse take next to revise the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial action to take after the patient falls is to assess the patient (Choice D). This is important to determine the extent of any injuries sustained, assess the patient's current condition, and identify any factors that may have contributed to the fall. By conducting a thorough assessment, the nurse can gather crucial information to inform the revision of the care plan. Consulting physical therapy (Choice A) may be necessary later on but is not the immediate priority. Establishing a new plan of care (Choice B) and setting new priorities (Choice C) should be based on the assessment findings, making Choice D the most appropriate initial action.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse would expect which of the following would be included in the plan of care/
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Monitoring electrolytes is essential to assess for potential imbalances due to the use of sodium bicarbonate, which can lead to hypokalemia and hypocalcemia. Step 2: Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Step 3: By monitoring electrolytes, the nurse can detect imbalances early and intervene promptly to prevent adverse effects. Summary: A: Drinking excessive water can lead to electrolyte imbalances and is not directly related to the use of sodium bicarbonate. B: Administering NaHCO3 IV is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should be done based on physician's orders. C: Continuing sodium bicarbonate for nausea may not be appropriate without monitoring electrolytes to prevent potential imbalances.