Which of the ff symptoms is associated with AIDS related distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abnormal sensations such as burning and numbness. In AIDS-related DSP, damage to nerves causes abnormal sensations like burning and numbness. This is due to the progressive nerve damage affecting sensory functions. Staggering gait and muscle incoordination (A) are more common in conditions affecting motor nerves. Delusional thinking (C) is not a symptom of DSP. Incontinence (D) is not typically associated with DSP but may happen in more advanced stages due to loss of sensation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protein. Antibodies are a type of protein produced by the immune system to help identify and neutralize pathogens like bacteria and viruses. Proteins are composed of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Antibodies have a specific structure that allows them to bind to specific antigens. Fat (A), Sugar (C), and Carbohydrates (D) are not primary components of antibodies and do not play a significant role in their structure or function.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone marrow. Blood cells are primarily formed in the bone marrow through a process called hematopoiesis. The bone marrow contains stem cells that differentiate into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Arterioles are small blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart, not involved in blood cell formation. Lymphoid tissue plays a role in immune function but not in blood cell production. Muscle tissue is primarily responsible for movement and does not have a role in blood cell formation. Therefore, the bone marrow is the correct answer as it is the main site of blood cell production in the body.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix. 2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer. 3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer. 4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: New set of tracheostomy tubes and Oxygen tank. Rationale: 1. New set of tracheostomy tubes: Essential for reinserting the cannulas to secure the airway. 2. Oxygen tank: To ensure James has a stable oxygen supply while the tracheostomy tubes are being reinserted. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Theophylline and Epinephrine - These medications are not directly related to managing a dislodged tracheostomy. C: Obturator and Kelly clamp - While these are useful tools for tracheostomy care, they are not the immediate equipment needed in this emergency situation. D: Sterile saline dressing - This is not relevant for a dislodged tracheostomy; the priority is securing the airway.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. A balanced and varied diet provides essential nutrients for immune function. 2. Including a wide range of foods ensures intake of vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants crucial for immune health. 3. Avoiding extremes like excessive immune-enhancing formulas or eliminating polyunsaturated fatty acids maintains balance. 4. Essential fatty acids and omega-3 fatty acids are beneficial but should be part of a well-rounded diet. 5. For clients with immune-mediated disorders, individualized dietary advice may be necessary. Summary: - A: Immune-enhancing formulas may not be necessary and could disrupt balance. - B: Avoiding all polyunsaturated fatty acids is not advisable as some are essential for health. - C: Increasing essential fatty acids is beneficial but should be part of a balanced diet.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Polyps. Polyps in the colon are precancerous growths that can develop into colorectal cancer over time. Identifying polyps during a medical history interview can raise suspicion for colorectal cancer due to their potential to progress into malignancy. Duodenal ulcer (A) is not directly related to colorectal cancer. Weight gain (B) is a non-specific symptom and does not specifically indicate colorectal cancer. Hemorrhoids (C) are common and usually benign, not directly linked to colorectal cancer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, assess vital signs, as it is crucial to monitor the client's hemodynamic stability and response to treatment during the critical initial 24 hours of Addisonian crisis. Vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate provide valuable information about the client's condition and response to therapy. Weighing the client (choice A) and testing urine for ketones (choice C) may be important but not as immediately critical as monitoring vital signs. Administering oral hydrocortisone (choice B) is essential for treatment but does not require frequent administration within the first 24 hours.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use a low-pitched voice. This is because elderly individuals often experience age-related hearing loss, especially in high frequencies. Using a low-pitched voice helps improve the clarity and understanding of communication. Incorrect choices: A: Leaning and shouting can be perceived as aggressive and disrespectful to the elderly client. C: Opening the mouth wide while talking does not enhance communication and might be seen as patronizing. D: Using a medium-pitched voice may still be difficult for the elderly client to hear clearly due to age-related hearing loss.