Which of the ff should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a client with acute bronchitis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Washing the hands frequently. This is important for preventing the spread of infection, which is crucial in acute bronchitis. By washing hands frequently, the client can reduce the risk of transmitting the infection to others and prevent reinfection. A: Not coughing frequently - While managing cough is important, it is not the most crucial aspect in the teaching plan for acute bronchitis. C: Consuming adequate calories - While nutrition is important for overall health, it is not specifically related to the management of acute bronchitis. D: Encouraging a semi-Fowler’s position - While this position can help with breathing, it is not the most important aspect in the teaching plan for acute bronchitis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach him to perform Kegel's exercises 10 to 20 times per hour. This is the appropriate action because Kegel's exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve urinary control and reduce dribbling post-TURP. Restricting fluid intake (A) is not necessary and may lead to dehydration. Reinserting the Foley catheter (C) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Reassuring the patient (D) without providing any intervention is not addressing the issue. Teaching Kegel's exercises is the most effective and non-invasive approach to manage post-TURP dribbling.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Block beta stimulation in the heart. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking beta-1 and beta-2 receptors in the heart. By doing so, it reduces the heart rate, decreases the force of contraction, and lowers blood pressure, which helps in managing angina. Option A is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasoconstrictor. Option C is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasodilator. Option D is incorrect because propranolol decreases the heart rate rather than increasing it.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the elderly patient receiving a diuretic for fluid overload. This patient would benefit most from a capped IV catheter used intermittently because diuretics can lead to fluctuations in fluid balance that require careful monitoring and adjustment of IV fluids. By using the catheter intermittently, healthcare providers can better control the amount of fluid administered to prevent electrolyte imbalances. Option A is incorrect because a patient with pneumonia requiring fluids and antibiotics would likely benefit from a continuous IV to maintain stable levels of medications and hydration. Option B is incorrect as a patient with major blood loss would require continuous IV fluids to restore blood volume. Option C is incorrect as a dehydrated young child would also benefit from continuous IV fluids to rehydrate effectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea on exertion. In older clients, dyspnea on exertion is often the earliest symptom of heart failure due to decreased cardiac reserve. This occurs when the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's demands during physical activity. Increased urine output (A) is not typically an early symptom of heart failure. Swollen joints (C) are more indicative of arthritis or inflammation, not necessarily heart failure. Nausea and vomiting (D) are not typical early symptoms of heart failure and are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Deficient knowledge. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because educating the patient about hypertension, its management, lifestyle modifications, and medication adherence is crucial in improving outcomes. Activity intolerance (A) and impaired physical mobility (B) are not typically primary focuses for hypertension but may be secondary concerns. Ineffective airway clearance (C) is unrelated to hypertension. Therefore, D is the most relevant option for addressing the patient's needs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. The risk of ovarian cancer increases with age and nulliparity (never having been pregnant) is a significant risk factor. The older a woman gets without having been pregnant, the higher her risk of developing ovarian cancer. The other choices do not have as high of a risk factor for ovarian cancer. Choice A, a 30-year old woman taking contraceptives, actually reduces the risk of ovarian cancer. Choice C, a 40-year old woman with three children, and choice D, a 36-year old woman who had her first child at age 22, both have lower risk factors compared to choice B.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Surgical removal. Surgical removal of the cancerous tumor is the best treatment before metastasis because it physically removes the cancer cells. Chemotherapy and radiation are used to treat cancer after it has spread, not as the primary treatment. Choice D is incorrect because not all types of cancer can be effectively treated with all three options.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: An aminoglycoside. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin or amikacin, can interact with cisplatin by increasing the risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Both cisplatin and aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage, and when used together, the risk of kidney toxicity is significantly increased. This interaction is due to the additive effects on the kidneys. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor renal function closely and adjust the dosages of these drugs accordingly to prevent severe adverse effects. Summary: A: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is not known to have significant interactions with cisplatin. B: A cephalosporin - Cephalosporins do not typically interact with cisplatin in a clinically significant manner. C: A tetracycline - Tetracyclines are not known to cause significant interactions with