Which of the ff. nursing interventions will help prevent complications in the patient with Bell’s Palsy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Lubricating eye drops Rationale: Lubricating eye drops help prevent complications such as corneal abrasions in patients with Bell's Palsy by keeping the eye moist and preventing dryness. Bell's Palsy can cause difficulty in closing the eye properly, leading to dryness and potential damage to the cornea. Using lubricating eye drops helps maintain eye health. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Megavitamin therapy - Not directly related to preventing complications in Bell's Palsy. B: Application of ice to the affected area - Ice may not address eye dryness or prevent corneal abrasions. C: Elastic bandages - Not relevant to preventing complications associated with Bell's Palsy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in myasthenia gravis, which is characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, the administration of edrophonium will temporarily improve muscle strength due to increased availability of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This improvement should be noted within 30 to 60 seconds after the administration of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because joint pain is not a typical response to edrophonium in the context of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect because feelings of faintness, dizziness, hypotension, and flushing are more indicative of a cholinergic crisis, which occurs when too much edrophonium is administered. Choice D is incorrect because an increase in muscle strength post-edrophonium administration would not be expected in a client with myasthenia gravis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the Snellen eye chart test, the first number (20) represents the distance at which the client is viewing the chart, and the second number (40) represents the distance at which a person with normal vision can read the same line. Therefore, a client with 20/40 vision sees letters at 20 feet that others with normal vision can read at 40 feet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the interpretation of the 20/40 vision result from the Snellen eye chart test. B is incorrect because the client does not see letters at 40 feet that others can read at 20 feet. Choices C and D are incorrect because the Snellen eye chart test measures visual acuity, not color perception.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because successful treatment of diabetes insipidus aims to reduce excessive urine output and dehydration. A fluid intake of less than 2,500mL in 24 hours indicates proper control of fluid balance. Choice B is incorrect because urine output of more than 200mL/hour suggests ongoing excessive fluid loss, which is not indicative of successful treatment. Choice C is incorrect as a blood pressure of 90/50mmHg is low and may indicate hypotension, which is not a specific indicator of successful diabetes insipidus treatment. Choice D is incorrect because a pulse rate of 126 beats/min is not a direct marker of diabetes insipidus treatment success. In summary, the correct indicator of successful treatment of diabetes insipidus is a reduction in fluid intake, option A, as it signifies improved fluid balance and hydration status.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Profound neuromuscular irritability. In hypoparathyroidism, there is a decrease in parathyroid hormone leading to low calcium levels. This can result in neuromuscular irritability such as muscle cramps, spasms, and tingling. Monitoring for neuromuscular symptoms is crucial as they can progress to severe complications like seizures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypoparathyroidism does not typically present with severe hypotension, excessive thirst, or acute gastritis. Monitoring for signs of hypocalcemia and neuromuscular irritability is essential in managing hypoparathyroidism.