ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions is taken as a precautionary measure if shock develops when a client with a spinal cord injury is hospitalized?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An IV line is inserted to provide access to a vein. In shock, adequate intravenous access is crucial to administer fluids and medications rapidly. This helps stabilize the client's condition by restoring blood volume and improving circulation. Choice B is incorrect as immobilization is not a primary intervention for shock in this scenario. Choice C, traction, is not appropriate for managing shock but rather for stabilizing spinal cord injuries. Choice D, using a turning frame, is not relevant to managing shock and does not address the immediate need for fluid resuscitation.
Question 2 of 9
When administering spironolactone (Aldactone) to a client who has had a unilateral adrenalectomy, the nurse should instruct the client about which of the following possible adverse effects of the drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Menstrual irregularities. After a unilateral adrenalectomy, the remaining adrenal gland may be affected by spironolactone, leading to hormonal imbalances and menstrual irregularities. This drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can interfere with the production of aldosterone, affecting hormonal regulation. Breast tenderness (A) is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Increased facial hair (B) is associated with hirsutism, not typically seen with spironolactone. Hair loss (D) is more commonly associated with other medications like chemotherapy, not spironolactone.
Question 3 of 9
How can the nurse help monitor effectiveness of therapy for the patient with a pneumothorax and chest-drainage system?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate lung sounds. By auscultating lung sounds, the nurse can assess for changes in breath sounds which can indicate improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition. This helps monitor the effectiveness of therapy for a pneumothorax and chest-drainage system. Palpating for crepitus (A) is not directly related to monitoring therapy effectiveness. Documenting sputum color and amount (B) is important but does not specifically monitor therapy effectiveness. Monitoring suction level (D) is crucial but does not directly assess the patient's response to therapy.
Question 4 of 9
Which iron-rich foods should the nurse encourage an anemic client requiring iron therapy to eat?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shrimp and tomatoes. Shrimp is a good source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Tomatoes are rich in Vitamin C, which helps enhance iron absorption. Cheese, bananas, lobster, squash, lamb, and peaches do not provide significant amounts of iron essential for an anemic client. The combination of shrimp and tomatoes offers a balanced approach to increase iron levels effectively.
Question 5 of 9
What part of the nursing diagnosis statement suggests the nursing interventions to be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Etiology of the problem. In a nursing diagnosis statement, the etiology describes the underlying cause or contributing factors to the identified problem. This is crucial as it guides the selection of appropriate nursing interventions aimed at addressing the root cause of the issue. By addressing the etiology, nurses can implement interventions that will effectively treat the problem. Choice A (Problem statement) simply identifies the issue without providing insight into its cause. Choice B (Defining characteristics) lists the signs and symptoms of the problem but doesn't directly inform the interventions needed. Choice D (Outcomes criteria) outlines the expected results of the interventions but doesn't directly suggest which interventions to implement. Thus, C is the correct choice as it directly influences the selection of appropriate nursing interventions.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. is a side effect most likely to be reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect is a dry, persistent cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. This is a distinctive side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Acne (A), diarrhea (B), and heartburn (D) are not commonly associated with enalapril use and are less likely side effects.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is developing a care plan. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nursing diagnostic statement Risk for loneliness related to impaired verbal communication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide the patient with a writing board each shift. This intervention addresses the impaired verbal communication by offering an alternative way for the patient to communicate. Writing board enables the patient to express thoughts and feelings, reducing the risk of loneliness. Choice B doesn't directly address the communication issue. Choice C is not relevant to the nursing diagnosis. Choice D, while promoting companionship, doesn't address the specific communication concern stated in the diagnosis.
Question 8 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin (Ecotrin), 600mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the physician if which adverse drug reaction occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tinnitus. Aspirin can cause tinnitus (ringing in the ears) as an adverse drug reaction, which can indicate potential ototoxicity. Tinnitus is an important side effect that should be reported promptly to the physician to prevent further auditory complications. Dysuria (A), leg cramps (C), and constipation (D) are not typically associated with aspirin use and are less urgent compared to tinnitus. Reporting these side effects may still be necessary but are not as critical as tinnitus in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
When instructing the client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, the nurse should stress the importance of which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restricting sodium. In hyperparathyroidism, there is an excess of parathyroid hormone leading to increased calcium levels. Sodium can worsen calcium excretion, exacerbating the condition. Restricting sodium can help reduce calcium loss. A: Restricting fluids is not necessary unless the client has kidney issues. B: Forcing fluids may not be beneficial and can lead to fluid overload. D: Restricting potassium is not typically necessary unless the client has kidney issues.