ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the ff is the most severe complication among clients with allergies, regardless of type?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, anaphylactic shock and angioedema, as it is the most severe complication of allergies and can be life-threatening. Anaphylactic shock can lead to airway constriction, severe drop in blood pressure, and organ failure. Angioedema can cause swelling of the face, lips, and throat, leading to difficulty breathing. Bronchitis (A) is a respiratory condition that can occur due to allergies but is not typically life-threatening. Cardiac arrest (C) is a serious complication but not directly related to allergies. Asthma and nasal polyps (D) are common allergic conditions but are not as immediately life-threatening as anaphylactic shock.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following would the nurse identify as an abnormal finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse would identify platelets at 115,000/ul as an abnormal finding because it is below the normal range of 150,000-450,000/ul. Low platelet count can lead to increased bleeding risk. RBC count and hematocrit levels are within normal ranges, making them normal findings. Option D is incorrect as platelets are abnormal.
Question 3 of 5
A client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss in 6 weeks. To confirm that the client has been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the Western blot test with ELISA. First, ELISA is used as a screening test for HIV antibodies. If positive, a confirmatory test like Western blot is needed to detect specific antibodies. Western blot is highly specific and confirms the presence of HIV antibodies. E-rosette immunofluorescence is not typically used for HIV diagnosis. Quantification of T-lymphocytes is used to monitor disease progression in HIV but does not confirm HIV infection. ELISA alone is not confirmatory; it needs to be followed by a more specific test like Western blot.
Question 4 of 5
A client has been taking a decongestant for allergic rhinitis. During a follow-up visit, which of the following suggests that the decongestant has been effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.
Question 5 of 5
The client with rheumatoid arthritis reports GI irritation after taking piroxicam (Feldene). To prevent GI upset, the nurse should provide which instruction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take piroxicam with food or oral antacid. This instruction helps to reduce GI irritation by providing a protective barrier for the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effect on prostaglandin synthesis. Taking it with food or an antacid can help minimize this side effect. Choice A (Space the administration every 4 hours) does not address the issue of GI irritation and is not a recommended strategy for preventing this side effect. Choice B (Use the drug for a short time only) is not a direct intervention to prevent GI upset and does not provide guidance on how to manage the side effect when taking the medication. Choice D (Decrease the piroxicam dosage) may not be necessary if the client can manage the side effects with the simple intervention of taking it with food or an antacid.