ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff is the characteristic of a ketogenic diet that is suggested for children with seizures?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (High fat diet) Rationale: 1. Ketogenic diet for seizures aims to produce ketones for brain energy, achieved through high fat intake. 2. High fat intake helps induce ketosis, which may help reduce seizures in some children. Incorrect Choices: A: High carbohydrate diet - Contradicts the purpose of a ketogenic diet. C: High protein diet - Excessive protein can hinder ketosis and is not the primary focus of a ketogenic diet. D: Low fat diet - Opposite of the high fat requirement for a ketogenic diet to induce ketosis.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse understands that labyrinthitis is treated primarily with which of the ff. drug categories?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antihistamines. Labyrinthitis is an inner ear condition often caused by inflammation or infection. Antihistamines help reduce symptoms like vertigo and dizziness by decreasing inflammation and fluid buildup in the inner ear. Anti-inflammatories (choice B) may help with inflammation but are not as effective for inner ear conditions. Antispasmotics (choice C) are not typically used for treating labyrinthitis. Antiemetics (choice D) are used to control nausea and vomiting, which can be symptoms of labyrinthitis but do not address the underlying cause.
Question 3 of 9
. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. The nurse explains that these medications are only effective if the client:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Oral antidiabetic agents target insulin resistance, common in type 2 diabetes. 2. Type 1 diabetes lacks insulin production, making oral agents ineffective. 3. Choice A is incorrect as insulin cannot be taken orally. 4. Choice C is incorrect as oral agents are not indicated for type 2 diabetes. 5. Choice D is incorrect as pregnancy does not affect the type of diabetes.
Question 4 of 9
One of the dangers of treating hypernatremia is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cerebral edema. Hypernatremia is an elevated sodium level in the blood, which can lead to osmotic shifts causing water to move out of cells, including brain cells. This can result in cerebral edema, potentially leading to neurological complications. Incorrect choices: A: Red blood cell crenation - This occurs in hypertonic solutions, not hypernatremia. C: Red blood cell hydrolysis - Hypernatremia doesn't directly cause red blood cell hydrolysis. D: Renal shutdown - Hypernatremia can stress the kidneys, but it doesn't typically lead to renal shutdown.
Question 5 of 9
During the initial assessment, he is placed in a modified Trendelenburg position. What desired effect should the position have on the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The modified Trendelenburg position involves placing the client with their legs elevated higher than their head. This position promotes venous return to the heart, increasing preload and cardiac output, thereby leading to an increase in blood pressure. Elevating the legs helps to reduce peripheral edema and improve circulation. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is incorrect because the Trendelenburg position does not directly affect the respiratory rate. Choice C is incorrect as the position is not intended to increase heart rate but rather improve venous return. Choice D is also incorrect as the primary goal of the Trendelenburg position is not to decrease blood loss, although it may help in some cases by improving circulation.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff are the symptoms of basilar skull fracture? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Raccoon eyes. Basilar skull fracture can result in periorbital bruising, known as raccoon eyes, due to blood pooling in the soft tissues around the eyes. This occurs because the fracture involves the base of the skull near the orbits. Choice B: Amnesia is not a typical symptom of basilar skull fracture. Amnesia may occur in head injuries but is not specific to basilar skull fractures. Choice C: Halo sign is a term used to describe a ring of clear fluid surrounding a blood spot, typically seen in cases of a cerebrospinal fluid leak from the ear or nose, not specific to basilar skull fractures. Choice D: Paresthesia, which refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, is not a common symptom of basilar skull fractures. It is more associated with nerve damage rather than fractures involving the base of the skull.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is conducting a nursing health history. Which component will the nurse address?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Patient expectations. During a nursing health history, the nurse focuses on gathering information about the patient's health concerns, medical history, lifestyle, and expectations for their care. Addressing patient expectations is crucial for providing patient-centered care and establishing a therapeutic relationship. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Nurse's concerns are not the primary focus of a nursing health history. C: Current treatment orders are important but are typically addressed during a physical assessment or when implementing care. D: Nurse's goals for the patient are important but should be developed in collaboration with the patient based on their needs and preferences.
Question 8 of 9
A male client, age 45, undergoes a lumbar puncture in which CSF was extracted for a particular neurologic diagnostic procedure. After the procedure, he complains of dizziness and a slight headache. Which of the ff steps must the nurse take to provide comfort to the client? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician. Rationale: 1. Positioning the client flat helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache by allowing the CSF to replenish and stabilize the pressure in the spinal canal. 2. The recommended time frame of 3 hours allows for adequate CSF reabsorption and reduces the likelihood of headache. 3. Following physician's direction is crucial to individualize care based on the specific situation. Summary of other choices: B: Encouraging fluid intake is generally good practice but may not directly alleviate post-lumbar puncture headache. C: Keeping the room well lit and playing soothing music may not address the physiological cause of the client's symptoms. D: Ambulation and leg exercises are not recommended immediately post-lumbar puncture as they may exacerbate dizziness and headache.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because testicular cancer is indeed a highly curable type of cancer if detected early through self-examinations. This empowers the client to take control of their health. Choice B is incorrect as testicular cancer is detectable through self-examinations. Choice C is incorrect as testicular cancer is not the number one cause of cancer deaths in males; it is relatively rare. Choice D is incorrect as testicular cancer is more common in younger men, typically between the ages of 15 and 44.