ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff is the characteristic of a ketogenic diet that is suggested for children with seizures?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (High fat diet) Rationale: 1. Ketogenic diet for seizures aims to produce ketones for brain energy, achieved through high fat intake. 2. High fat intake helps induce ketosis, which may help reduce seizures in some children. Incorrect Choices: A: High carbohydrate diet - Contradicts the purpose of a ketogenic diet. C: High protein diet - Excessive protein can hinder ketosis and is not the primary focus of a ketogenic diet. D: Low fat diet - Opposite of the high fat requirement for a ketogenic diet to induce ketosis.
Question 2 of 9
A client receiving ferrous sulfate (Fer-Iron) therapy to treat an iron deficiency reports taking an antacid frequently to relieve heart burn. Which nursing instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Take ferrous sulfate and the antacid at least 2 hours apart." Rationale: 1. Iron absorption is decreased in the presence of antacids due to decreased gastric acidity. 2. Antacids can bind to iron and reduce its absorption. 3. Taking them 2 hours apart allows for optimal iron absorption without interference from the antacid. 4. Taking them together (choice A) would decrease iron absorption. 5. Avoiding antacids altogether (choice C) may not be necessary if spaced apart appropriately. 6. Taking them 1 hour apart (choice D) may still lead to decreased iron absorption due to antacid interference.
Question 3 of 9
When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects to administer:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH (antidiuretic hormone), leading to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps retain water by reducing urine output. Administering vasopressin helps manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. B: Regular insulin is used to manage diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. C: Furosemide is a diuretic used to increase urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. D: 10% dextrose is a form of glucose and is not indicated in the treatment of diabetes insipidus.
Question 4 of 9
A client is diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency. The physician begins the client on cyanocobalamin (Betalin-12), 100mcg IM daily. Which substance influences Vitamin B12 absorption?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein produced by the stomach that is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 absorption is impaired, leading to megaloblastic anemia. Histamine and hydrochloric acid are not directly involved in vitamin B12 absorption. Liver enzymes are not implicated in the absorption process. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Question 5 of 9
A client undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how to care for the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Keep the stoma dry." Keeping the stoma dry helps prevent infection and skin irritation. Moisture can lead to fungal growth and skin breakdown. Option A is incorrect because keeping the stoma uncovered can increase the risk of contamination and infection. Option C is incorrect as self-care promotes independence and allows the client to become familiar with the procedure. Option D is incorrect as moisture can lead to skin issues.
Question 6 of 9
After assessment of a client in an ambulatory clinic, the nurse records the data on the computer. The nurse recognizes which of the following as objective data?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because auscultation of the lungs involves direct observation and measurement, making it objective data. This data is based on what the nurse hears through the stethoscope, which can be verified and measured. Choices B, C, and D involve subjective experiences or interpretations that cannot be directly observed or measured. Complaint of nausea, sensation of burning, and belief in demons are all based on the client's feelings, perceptions, or beliefs, which are subjective and can vary from person to person. Objective data is factual, measurable, and observable, making choice A the correct answer in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
Mrs. Go is suspected of experiencing respiratory distress from a left-sided pneumothorax. She should be positioned:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: in a semi-fowler's position. This position helps to improve ventilation and oxygenation by allowing the unaffected lung to expand fully. It also prevents further compression of the affected lung. Trendelenburg position (B) could worsen the pneumothorax by causing more pressure on the affected lung. Prone position (C) is not recommended as it can further compress the affected lung. Placing the patient on the right side (D) would not be beneficial in this case as it does not facilitate lung expansion on the affected side.
Question 8 of 9
A client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic study to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sigmoidoscopy. This procedure allows direct visualization of the lower colon and rectum, enabling the detection of colorectal cancer. Stool hematest (A) detects blood in the stool but does not confirm cancer. Abdominal CT (B) can show abnormalities but is not specific for colorectal cancer. CEA scan (C) measures a tumor marker but is not definitive for diagnosis. Sigmoidoscopy (D) is the gold standard for diagnosing colorectal cancer as it allows for direct visualization and tissue biopsy.
Question 9 of 9
How many liters per minute of oxygen should be administered to the patient with emphysema?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2 L/min. In emphysema, there is impaired gas exchange due to damaged lung tissue, resulting in decreased oxygen levels. Administering too high a flow rate can lead to oxygen toxicity. The standard oxygen therapy for emphysema is 1-2 L/min to maintain oxygen saturation without causing harm. Higher flow rates like 10 L/min (B) and 6 L/min (C) are excessive and can lead to oxygen toxicity. 95 L/min (D) is dangerously high and not suitable for oxygen therapy in emphysema. Therefore, A is the correct choice for safe and effective oxygen administration in emphysema.