ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the ff. is the best explanation of emphysema for a newly diagnosed patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because emphysema is characterized by the destruction of the alveoli walls, leading to a loss of elasticity in the lungs. This results in air becoming trapped in the lungs, making it difficult to exhale properly. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Inflamed bronchioles causing secretions describe bronchitis, not emphysema. C: Damage to the blood supply isn't a primary feature of emphysema; it's more about lung tissue destruction. D: Large dilated sacs of sputum in the lungs is not an accurate description of emphysema; it's more related to bronchiectasis.
Question 2 of 5
A patient asks the nurse what side effects to expect from a muscle relaxant medication that has been prescribed. Which of the ff. side effects should the nurse relate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Drowsiness. Muscle relaxants can cause drowsiness as a common side effect due to their sedative properties. This can impair alertness and coordination, so it's crucial for the patient to be aware of this potential effect. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not typically associated with muscle relaxants. Choice C, hypotension, is more commonly linked to medications like antihypertensives. Choice D, dyspnea, which is difficulty breathing, is not a common side effect of muscle relaxants. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on educating the patient about the potential side effect of drowsiness.
Question 3 of 5
Wilma knew that James have an adequate respiratory condition if she notices that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a normal respiratory rate for an adult is typically between 12-20 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 18 falls within this range, indicating adequate respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because an oxygen saturation of 91% is below the normal range of 95-100%, suggesting potential respiratory insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as frank blood suction from the tube indicates a serious issue such as bleeding, not adequate respiratory condition. Choice D is also incorrect as the presence of a moderate amount of tracheobronchial secretions may indicate a respiratory infection or other respiratory issue, not necessarily adequate respiratory condition.
Question 4 of 5
A female client age 66 is admitted ff a nephrolithomy. One of her laboratory tests reveals a urinary tract infection. Which would be the best nursing action in her case?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Encourage fluid intake of 3000ml/day Rationale: Encouraging fluid intake of 3000ml/day helps to flush out bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of infection spread. Adequate hydration also prevents further stone formation. Incorrect Choices: A: Administering IV fluids and blood transfusions may not directly address the urinary tract infection. B: Administering narcotic analgesics may mask symptoms but not treat the root cause of the infection. D: Suggesting herbs or spices does not address the need for adequate fluid intake to manage the urinary tract infection.
Question 5 of 5
The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetry. In the ABCD method for assessing skin lesions, A stands for asymmetry, which refers to whether one half of the lesion looks different from the other half. This is important because asymmetrical lesions are more likely to be cancerous. Actinic (choice A) refers to sun damage, Arcus (choice C) refers to a condition affecting the eyes, and Assessment (choice D) is a general term that does not specifically relate to the characteristics of skin lesions.
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