ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff is an assessment finding in a client with bonchiectasis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In bronchiectasis, worsening cough with position changes is an assessment finding due to increased sputum production and airway obstruction. This occurs because of the pooling of secretions in the affected bronchi. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in bronchiectasis, there is typically increased sputum production over time, productive cough with expectoration of large amounts of sputum, and cough that worsens with activity or physical exertion, rather than with position changes.
Question 2 of 9
A 52-year old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self- examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Non-mobile mass with irregular edges delineated. This finding strongly suggests cancer as non-mobile masses with irregular edges are characteristic of malignant tumors. Cancerous lumps tend to be fixed in place due to involvement of surrounding tissues. Irregular edges indicate potential invasive growth. Choices A and B describe characteristics more commonly associated with benign masses. Eversion of the nipple is concerning for cancer but not specific enough to strongly suggest malignancy. Choice D indicates absence of lymph node involvement, which is not directly related to the characteristics of the breast lump.
Question 3 of 9
A client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most common metastasis site for cancer cells?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver. Cancer cells commonly metastasize to the liver due to its rich blood supply, making it an ideal environment for tumor growth. Liver metastasis can occur from various primary cancer sites. The liver filters blood and is susceptible to receiving cancer cells circulating in the bloodstream. Metastasis to the colon (B) is less common as it is typically the primary site for colon cancer. Metastasis to the reproductive tract (C) can occur but is not as common as liver metastasis. White blood cells (D) are a part of the immune system and do not serve as a common site for cancer metastasis.
Question 4 of 9
During a routine checkup, the nurse assesses a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the common AIDS-related cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kaposi’s sarcoma. In AIDS patients, Kaposi’s sarcoma is a common cancer caused by human herpesvirus 8. It presents as purple or brown skin lesions. Squamous cell carcinoma (A), leukemia (B), and multiple myeloma (C) are not commonly associated with AIDS. Squamous cell carcinoma is linked to sun exposure, leukemia originates in the bone marrow, and multiple myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D due to its strong association with AIDS.
Question 5 of 9
A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix. 2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer. 3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer. 4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.
Question 6 of 9
A new nurse asks the preceptor to describe the primary purpose of evaluation. Which statement made by the nursing preceptor is most accurate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.” Evaluation in nursing is essential to assess the outcomes of nursing interventions and determine the effectiveness of the care provided. It helps in identifying areas for improvement, making informed decisions, and ensuring quality patient care. Choice A is incorrect because evaluation is not solely about checking completion of tasks but rather assessing the impact of those interventions on patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as evaluation is not related to staffing decisions but focuses on assessing the quality of care delivery. Choice D is incorrect as evaluation is not about eliminating paperwork but rather about improving care outcomes.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash and suffers a right femur fracture. The leg is stabilized in a full leg cast. Otherwise, the patient has no other major injuries, is in good health, and reports only moderate discomfort. Which is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis the nurse will include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most pertinent nursing diagnosis for this patient is acute pain (Choice C). This is because the patient's right femur fracture would likely cause significant pain and discomfort, which is a priority to address for optimal recovery and comfort. Managing pain effectively is crucial in promoting healing and preventing complications. Posttrauma syndrome (Choice A) is not as immediate a concern in this scenario. While constipation (Choice B) and anxiety (Choice D) are important considerations, addressing acute pain takes precedence in the initial plan of care to ensure the patient's comfort and well-being.
Question 8 of 9
Nursing intervention during the lumbar puncture procedure includes:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Monitoring Mrs. GC's color, pulse, and respiration is important to assess for any signs of distress during the procedure. Step 2: Labeling all laboratory specimens in numerical order ensures accurate identification and prevents errors in specimen handling. Step 3: Positioning Mrs. GC on her side with knees drawn up to her chest helps maintain proper spinal alignment and reduces the risk of complications. Summary: Option D is correct because all the interventions mentioned are crucial for ensuring patient safety and procedural success. Options A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they each address only one aspect of the procedure, whereas the correct answer encompasses all necessary interventions.
Question 9 of 9
If the systolic BP is elevated and the diastolic BP is normal, the nurse recognizes that a patient is most likely to have which type of hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isolated systolic hypertension. This is because in isolated systolic hypertension, the systolic blood pressure is elevated while the diastolic blood pressure remains normal. This condition is common in older adults and is often related to aging and stiffening of the arteries. Primary hypertension (A) typically involves both elevated systolic and diastolic pressures. Secondary hypertension (C) is caused by an underlying condition. Hypertensive emergency (D) is characterized by severe elevations in both systolic and diastolic pressures with acute target organ damage.