ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff is a sign or symptom of asthma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paroxysms or shortness of breath. Asthma is characterized by episodes of wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath, known as paroxysms. This symptom is caused by inflammation and constriction of the airways in response to triggers such as allergens or irritants. A: Production of abnormally thick, sticky mucus in lungs is more indicative of conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. B: Faulty transport of sodium in lung cells is associated with conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. D: Altered electrolyte balance in the sweat glands is a symptom of cystic fibrosis, not asthma. In summary, paroxysms or shortness of breath is a key sign of asthma due to airway inflammation and constriction, distinguishing it from the other choices that are more indicative of cystic fibrosis.
Question 2 of 9
Maintaining the infusion rate of hyperalimentation solutions is a nursing responsibility. What side effects would you anticipate from too rapid infusion rate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Rapid infusion of hyperalimentation solutions can lead to circulatory overload due to increased fluid volume in the circulatory system. 2. Circulatory overload can result in symptoms such as hypertension, tachycardia, and edema. 3. Hypoglycemia can occur as a result of excess insulin release due to the sudden increase in glucose from the hyperalimentation solution. Summary: A. Cellular dehydration and potassium: Incorrect. Rapid infusion would lead to fluid overload, not dehydration. B. Hypoglycemia and hypovolemia: Incorrect. Hypovolemia is unlikely with rapid infusion, and hypoglycemia is a possible side effect. C. Potassium excess and CHF: Incorrect. Rapid infusion may cause circulatory overload, not CHF, and potassium excess is not a common side effect. D. Circulatory overload and hypoglycemia: Correct. These are the most likely side effects of rapid
Question 3 of 9
The examiner shines a light in the patient’s eyes and notes that the pupils are round and constrict from 4 to 2 mm bilaterally. Next, the examiner asks the patient to focus on a far object, then on the examiner’s finger as it is brought from 3 feet distance to 5 inches distance. The pupils constrict bilaterally and the eyes turn inward. Which of the ff. would be the correct documentation of these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PERRLA, which stands for Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light, and Accommodation. This documentation reflects a comprehensive assessment of the pupils' response to light and accommodation. The pupils constricting from 4 to 2 mm bilaterally in response to light indicates they are reactive. Additionally, the eyes turning inward when focusing on a near object shows accommodation. Choice A is not the best option because it only mentions the pupil size without capturing other important aspects of the assessment. Choice C is too vague, as it does not specify the exact response of the pupils. Choice D is incorrect because it does not provide a detailed description of the pupils' response to both light and accommodation. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate choice as it encompasses all the necessary components of the assessment.
Question 4 of 9
During the physical assessment, the nurse recalls that the areas most frequently affected by multiple sclerosis are the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct Answer): 1. Multiple sclerosis (MS) commonly affects the optic nerve and chiasm. 2. MS is characterized by demyelination of nerves, leading to visual disturbances. 3. Optic nerve involvement results in vision problems, such as blurred vision. 4. Chiasm involvement can cause visual field deficits and color perception changes. Summary of Other Choices: A: Lateral, 3rd, and 4th ventricles - Incorrect. MS primarily affects the central nervous system, not ventricles. B: Pons, medulla, and cerebral peduncles - Incorrect. While these areas are part of the brainstem, they are not commonly affected in MS. D: Above areas - Incorrect. This choice is vague and does not specify any specific areas affected by MS.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse recognizes that the major early problem for Mr. Gabatan will be:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Quadriceps setting. After surgery, quadriceps setting exercises are crucial for preventing muscle atrophy and maintaining joint mobility. Bladder control (A) is important but typically not the major early problem. Client education (C) and use of aids for ambulation (D) are important aspects of care but not the primary concern immediately post-surgery. Quadriceps setting helps prevent complications and promote early mobility.
Question 6 of 9
A female client with lymphedema expresses her anxiety about the abnormal enlargement of an arm. Which of the ff suggestions should a nurse give to support the clients self image?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Introduce variations in styles of clothing. This suggestion promotes the client's self-image by helping her feel more comfortable and confident in her appearance despite the lymphedema. It allows her to express her personal style while accommodating the enlarged arm. A: Placing the arm in a sling does not address the client's self-image concerns and may further highlight the abnormality. B: Applying cold soaks may help with swelling but does not directly address the client's self-image. D: Tying a tight bandage can worsen lymphedema and does not address the client's self-image concerns.
Question 7 of 9
A client with HIV has been prescribed anti viral medications. What instructions related to administration of medications should the nurse give such a client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Timing: Antiviral medications should be taken as prescribed to maintain consistent drug levels in the body. 2. Around meals: Taking medications with or without food can affect absorption, so timing around meals helps with consistency. 3. Compliance: Following the timing instructions increases medication effectiveness and reduces the risk of drug resistance. Other Choices: B) Avoiding harsh sunlight: Not directly related to medication administration; may be a precaution for other reasons. C) Having medications with fruit juice: This is not a standard instruction for antiviral medications; may not be suitable for all medications. D) Increasing dose for worsening symptoms: This is dangerous and should only be done under healthcare provider supervision; self-adjusting medication doses can be harmful.
Question 8 of 9
Aling Maria, a 58-year old female, was admitted for the third time because of myxedema. Initial assessment by Nurse Mida should include symptoms of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Aling Maria is admitted for myxedema, which is severe hypothyroidism. Symptoms of hypothyroidism include lethargy, weight gain, slow speech, and decreased respiratory rate. Bradycardia, weight loss, heart failure, and diarrhea are not typical symptoms of myxedema. Tachycardia, constipation, and exopthalmus are more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism. Hypothermia, weight loss, and increased respiratory rate are not consistent with myxedema. Thus, choice C is the most appropriate initial assessment for Aling Maria.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is the most important assessment during the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Patency of airway and adequacy of respiration. During the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco, ensuring the airway is open and that breathing is adequate is the top priority to maintain oxygenation and prevent complications like hypoxia. This assessment is crucial for immediate intervention and can be life-saving. A: Level of awareness and response to pain may provide important information but is secondary to ensuring a patent airway and adequate breathing in an unconscious patient. B: Pupillary reflexes and response to sensory stimuli are important neurological assessments, but airway and breathing take precedence in the acute stage to maintain vital functions. C: Coherence and sense of hearing are not as critical as assessing and maintaining the airway and breathing in an unconscious patient.