Which of the ff is a sign or symptom of asthma?

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Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the ff is a sign or symptom of asthma?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paroxysms or shortness of breath. Asthma is characterized by episodes of wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath, known as paroxysms. This symptom is caused by inflammation and constriction of the airways in response to triggers such as allergens or irritants. A: Production of abnormally thick, sticky mucus in lungs is more indicative of conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. B: Faulty transport of sodium in lung cells is associated with conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. D: Altered electrolyte balance in the sweat glands is a symptom of cystic fibrosis, not asthma. In summary, paroxysms or shortness of breath is a key sign of asthma due to airway inflammation and constriction, distinguishing it from the other choices that are more indicative of cystic fibrosis.

Question 2 of 9

Clients will go through operations and who have undergone surgery need the proper observation, treatment, and care. Implementing the nursing process to these patients will help reduce complications. Nurse Maria is preparing Mr. Sy for surgery. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate he is well-informed about his imminent surgery?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mr. Sy's statement indicates he understands the pre-operative fasting instructions, which is crucial to prevent aspiration during surgery. Not eating after midnight reduces the risk of complications. A: Incorrect. Wearing a pneumatic compression device post-surgery is important, but this statement does not demonstrate understanding of pre-surgery preparations. C: Incorrect. Knowing the skin preparation site size does not indicate understanding of the surgery process. D: Incorrect. Signing the consent form at the operating table may indicate lack of understanding of the consent process and timing. In summary, choice B is correct as it shows Mr. Sy's awareness of the fasting requirement before surgery, which is crucial for a safe operation.

Question 3 of 9

The examiner shines a light in the patient’s eyes and notes that the pupils are round and constrict from 4 to 2 mm bilaterally. Next, the examiner asks the patient to focus on a far object, then on the examiner’s finger as it is brought from 3 feet distance to 5 inches distance. The pupils constrict bilaterally and the eyes turn inward. Which of the ff. would be the correct documentation of these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PERRLA, which stands for Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light, and Accommodation. This documentation reflects a comprehensive assessment of the pupils' response to light and accommodation. The pupils constricting from 4 to 2 mm bilaterally in response to light indicates they are reactive. Additionally, the eyes turning inward when focusing on a near object shows accommodation. Choice A is not the best option because it only mentions the pupil size without capturing other important aspects of the assessment. Choice C is too vague, as it does not specify the exact response of the pupils. Choice D is incorrect because it does not provide a detailed description of the pupils' response to both light and accommodation. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate choice as it encompasses all the necessary components of the assessment.

Question 4 of 9

The NAP states that was busy and had not had a chance to tell the nurse yet. The patient begins to complain of feeling dizzy and light-headed. The blood pressure is rechecked and it has dropped even lower. In which phase of the nursing process did the nurse first make an error? NursingStoreRN

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. The nurse made an error in the assessment phase by not communicating the patient's condition promptly. Assessment involves collecting data and recognizing changes in the patient's condition. By not informing the nurse about feeling dizzy and light-headed, the nurse missed crucial information that could have indicated a deteriorating condition. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Diagnosis comes after assessment and involves analyzing data to identify the patient's problems. C: Implementation is the phase where nursing interventions are carried out based on the diagnosis. D: Evaluation is the final phase where the nurse assesses the effectiveness of interventions and outcomes.

Question 5 of 9

An adult suffered a diving accident and is being brought in by an ambulance intubated and on backboard with a cervical collar. What is the first action the nurse would take on arrival in the hospital?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Upon arrival, checking the lungs for equal breath sounds bilaterally is the first action. This is crucial to assess airway patency and breathing effectiveness in a patient with a history of diving accident and intubation. Ensuring proper oxygenation takes precedence over other actions. Taking vital signs, inserting an IV line, and performing a neurologic check can wait until airway and breathing are adequately assessed.

Question 6 of 9

The nurse teaches a diabetic client that diet plays a crucial role in managing diabetes mellitus. When evaluating dietary intake, the nurse knows the client is eating the right foods if total daily caloric intake consists of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (50% to 55% carbohydrate, 35% fat, and 10% to 15% protein) for managing diabetes. Carbohydrates impact blood sugar levels the most, so a moderate intake is crucial. The fat percentage is lower to reduce the risk of cardiovascular issues, common in diabetics. Protein intake is moderate for muscle maintenance. Choice A has higher fat and lower carbohydrate, not ideal for diabetes. Choice B has too high carbohydrate, which can spike blood sugar. Choice D has the highest carbohydrate percentage, which is not recommended for diabetes management.

Question 7 of 9

A female client with lymphedema expresses her anxiety about the abnormal enlargement of an arm. Which of the ff suggestions should a nurse give to support the clients self image?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Introduce variations in styles of clothing. This suggestion promotes the client's self-image by helping her feel more comfortable and confident in her appearance despite the lymphedema. It allows her to express her personal style while accommodating the enlarged arm. A: Placing the arm in a sling does not address the client's self-image concerns and may further highlight the abnormality. B: Applying cold soaks may help with swelling but does not directly address the client's self-image. D: Tying a tight bandage can worsen lymphedema and does not address the client's self-image concerns.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse completes a health history and physical assessment on a client who has been admitted to the hospital for surgery. What is the purpose of this initial assessment?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: To establish a database to identify problems and strengths. This initial assessment is crucial for gathering comprehensive information about the client's health status, including past medical history, current health problems, and potential risk factors. By establishing a database, the nurse can identify both existing health issues that need to be addressed and strengths that can be built upon for effective care planning. This assessment serves as the foundation for developing an individualized care plan and monitoring the client's progress throughout their hospital stay. Explanation of other options: A: To gather data about a specific and current health problem - While this may be part of the assessment process, the main purpose is broader in scope to establish a comprehensive database. B: To identify life-threatening problems that require immediate attention - While identifying urgent issues is important, the initial assessment is not solely focused on life-threatening problems. C: To compare and contrast current health status to baseline data - While comparing to baseline data is important for tracking changes, the primary purpose

Question 9 of 9

Mr. RR is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of brain tumor. Mr. RR’s doctor is very much concerned about the possibility of increased intracranial pressure. The following is the most reliable index of cerebral state:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Level of consciousness is the most reliable index of cerebral state because it directly reflects the functioning of the brain. Changes in consciousness can indicate alterations in cerebral perfusion and potential increases in intracranial pressure. Step 2: Unilateral papillary dilatation may suggest an increase in intracranial pressure, but it is not as reliable as level of consciousness in assessing overall cerebral state. Step 3: Increased systolic blood pressure can occur due to various reasons and may not specifically indicate changes in intracranial pressure. Step 4: Decreased pulse pressure may be related to factors such as hypovolemia or cardiac conditions, but it is not a direct indicator of cerebral state or intracranial pressure.

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