ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the ff is a sign of urinary retention in older adults with a neurologic deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, a behavior change. Urinary retention in older adults with a neurologic deficit can manifest as a behavior change, such as increased agitation, confusion, or restlessness due to discomfort from the inability to empty the bladder. Amnesia (A) is memory loss and not directly related to urinary retention. Hypertension (B) and hypotension (C) are related to blood pressure regulation and are not specific signs of urinary retention. In contrast, a behavior change (D) is a common and characteristic sign indicating urinary retention in this population.
Question 2 of 5
A goal for a patient with diabetes is to demonstrate effective coping skills. Which patient behavior will indicate to the nurse achievement of this outcome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because stating feeling better after talking with family and friends demonstrates the use of healthy coping skills. This behavior indicates the patient is seeking and utilizing social support, which is crucial for managing stress and emotions effectively in diabetes management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because consuming high-carbohydrate foods when stressed can lead to poor blood sugar control, disliking support group meetings indicates avoidance of beneficial support resources, and spending most of the day in bed can contribute to physical and emotional deterioration, rather than effective coping.
Question 3 of 5
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. This is because regular screening with both tests can help detect prostate cancer early. The digital rectal exam allows the doctor to feel for any abnormalities in the prostate gland, while the PSA test measures the levels of a specific protein produced by the prostate gland. If there are any concerning findings, further diagnostic tests can be done to confirm prostate cancer. Choice B is incorrect because transrectal ultrasound is not a recommended screening test for prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as testicular self-examinations are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
Question 4 of 5
A client was brought to the emergency room with complains of difficulty of breathing. What can lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C being correct: 1. Restlessness: Indicates increased work of breathing and hypoxia. 2. Suprasternal retractions: Sign of respiratory distress. 3. paO2 of 62: Indicates severe hypoxemia, common in ARDS. Summary: A: Enlarged heart on x-ray does not directly indicate ARDS. B: Thick green sputum suggests infection, not specific to ARDS. D: Wheezes and slow respirations are not typical of ARDS, and pCO2 is normal in ARDS.
Question 5 of 5
If a client’s parathyroid glands were accidentally removed during a procedure, which condition should the nurse prepare for?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypocalcemia. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the body. Without them, calcium levels will drop, leading to hypocalcemia. A: Hypomagnesemia is incorrect because magnesium levels are not directly regulated by the parathyroid glands. B: Hyperkalemia and C: Hypernatremia are incorrect as they are not typically associated with parathyroid gland removal. In summary, the removal of parathyroid glands would result in hypocalcemia due to the disruption of calcium regulation in the body.
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