ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff instructions should a nurse give a client with Hodgkin’s disease who is at risk of impaired skin integrity? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Keeping the neck in midline helps prevent compression of the lymphatic vessels in the neck, reducing the risk of impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease. Step 2: This position also helps maintain proper blood flow and lymphatic drainage in the neck area. Step 3: Trimming nails short, using mild soap, and supporting bony prominences are not directly related to preventing impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly addresses the specific risk factor of impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease, while the other choices are not as relevant to this particular concern.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff. actions would the nurse include in the plan of care to reduce the symptoms of the patient who has vertigo?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid sudden movements. Vertigo is a type of dizziness where a person feels like they're spinning or the world around them is spinning. Sudden movements can worsen vertigo symptoms. By avoiding sudden movements, the nurse can help reduce the patient's vertigo symptoms. Avoiding noises (A) may help with other conditions like migraines, but it is not specifically helpful for vertigo. Encouraging fluid intake (B) is important for overall health but does not directly address vertigo symptoms. Administering analgesics (D) may help with pain but will not address the underlying cause of vertigo. Therefore, choosing option C is the most appropriate action to include in the plan of care for reducing vertigo symptoms.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. What is the best way to protect this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use the smallest needle possible for injections. In a client with thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), there is an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Using the smallest needle possible for injections reduces the risk of causing injury to blood vessels and tissues, minimizing bleeding complications. Limiting visits by family members (choice A) is not directly related to protecting the client's safety. Encouraging wheelchair use (choice B) is not necessary unless indicated for mobility reasons. Maintaining accurate fluid intake and output records (choice D) is important for overall client care but does not directly address the risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenia.
Question 4 of 9
What is the focus of a diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The potential complication. In a collaborative problem, the focus of a diagnostic statement should be on identifying any potential complications that may arise due to the client's condition or treatment. This allows nurses and other healthcare professionals to anticipate and address these complications proactively. A: The client problem - While important, the client problem is usually addressed in the nursing diagnosis rather than the diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem. C: The nursing diagnosis - The nursing diagnosis focuses on the actual or potential health problems that the client is experiencing, which is different from the focus of a diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem. D: The medical diagnosis - The medical diagnosis is the identification of a disease or condition by a healthcare provider, which is not the focus when identifying potential complications in a collaborative problem.
Question 5 of 9
Pulmonary edema is characterized by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Pulmonary edema is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation. 2. Elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure signifies heart failure, a common cause of pulmonary edema. 3. A rise in pulmonary venous pressure is a consequence of increased hydrostatic pressure. Therefore, all three alterations (A, B, D) are characteristic of pulmonary edema. Option C is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are all individually associated with pulmonary edema and collectively represent the condition.
Question 6 of 9
After being in remission from Hodgkin’s disease for 18 months, a client develops a fever of unknown origin. The physician orders a blind liver biopsy to rule out advancing Hodgkin’sdisease and infection. Twenty-four hours after the biopsy, the client has a fever, complains of severe abdominal pain, and seems increasingly confused. The nurse suspects that these finding result from:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perforation of the colon caused by the liver biopsy. The symptoms of fever, severe abdominal pain, and confusion are indicative of peritonitis, which can result from a bowel perforation during the liver biopsy procedure. Perforation of the colon can lead to leakage of bowel contents into the peritoneal cavity, causing inflammation, infection, and systemic symptoms. This is a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Incorrect options: A: Bleeding in the liver caused by the liver biopsy would present with symptoms such as hypotension and signs of internal bleeding, not confusion and severe abdominal pain. C: An allergic reaction to contrast media would typically present with symptoms such as rash, itching, or respiratory distress, not fever, severe abdominal pain, and confusion. D: Normal post procedural pain would not cause confusion and a change in the level of consciousness, which indicates a more serious underlying issue like bowel perforation.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse assesses the motor functions during a neurologic examination of a client. Which of the ff steps will help the nurse perform the examination effectively? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Allowing the client to grasp the nurse's hand firmly assesses grip strength and motor coordination. 2. This step helps evaluate the client's ability to follow instructions and perform a coordinated motor task accurately. 3. Assessing grip strength is essential in determining any muscle weakness or neurological deficits. 4. It also provides insight into the client's motor function and coordination abilities. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on sensory functions rather than motor functions. - Choice C assesses fine motor skills, not grip strength and coordination. - Choice D evaluates cognition and logic, which are not directly related to motor function assessment.
Question 8 of 9
If a patient has severe hyperkalemia, it is possible to administer calcium gluconate intravenously to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D. Antagonize the action of K on the heart Rationale: 1. Calcium gluconate stabilizes cardiac cell membranes during hyperkalemia. 2. By antagonizing the effects of potassium on the heart, it helps prevent life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. 3. It does not lower potassium levels immediately or prevent transient renal failure. 4. Administering calcium gluconate is specific to addressing the cardiac effects of hyperkalemia, not renal or overall potassium reduction.
Question 9 of 9
A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a class V Pap test finding indicates severe abnormalities, such as high-grade dysplasia or carcinoma in situ. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to undergo a biopsy as soon as possible to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment promptly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a class V result is not normal and requires immediate follow-up, rather than waiting or repeating the Pap test at a later time.