ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff. does the nurse understand are the reasons a patient with pulmonary edema is given morphine sulphate? i.To reduce anxiety iv.To increase BP ii.To relieve chest pain v.To reduce preload and afterload iii.To strengthen heart contractions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because morphine sulfate is given to a patient with pulmonary edema to reduce anxiety (i) and to reduce preload and afterload (v). Morphine sulfate does not increase blood pressure (ii), relieve chest pain (iii), or strengthen heart contractions (iv) in the context of pulmonary edema. Choice A is incorrect because it includes increasing BP, which is not a reason for giving morphine sulfate in this case. Choice B is incorrect because it includes strengthening heart contractions, which is not a reason for administering morphine sulfate. Choice D is incorrect because it includes relieving chest pain, which is not a primary purpose of giving morphine sulfate to a patient with pulmonary edema.
Question 2 of 9
The NAP states that was busy and had not had a chance to tell the nurse yet. The patient begins to complain of feeling dizzy and light-headed. The blood pressure is rechecked and it has dropped even lower. In which phase of the nursing process did the nurse first make an error? NursingStoreRN
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. In this scenario, the nurse failed to complete a thorough assessment by not informing the nurse about the patient's condition. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process where data is collected and analyzed to identify the patient's problems. By not communicating the patient's symptoms to the nurse, the nurse missed crucial information that could have led to timely intervention. Explanation of other choices: B: Diagnosis - The nurse did not have the opportunity to make a diagnosis because the assessment phase was incomplete. C: Implementation - The nurse did not reach the implementation phase yet as the assessment phase was not properly conducted. D: Evaluation - The nurse cannot evaluate the effectiveness of interventions as the assessment and subsequent phases were not properly carried out.
Question 3 of 9
A client with primary diabetes insipidus is ready for discharge on desmopressin (DDAVP). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.” Rationale: 1. Desmopressin is available in intranasal form for diabetes insipidus. 2. Nasal discharge or blockage may prevent proper absorption of the medication. 3. Instructing the client about this potential issue ensures optimal drug effectiveness. Summary: A: Incorrect. Temperature of desmopressin suspension doesn't affect its efficacy. B: Incorrect. A medical identification bracelet is necessary for chronic conditions like diabetes insipidus. D: Incorrect. Monitoring fluid intake and output is crucial when taking desmopressin.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is attempting to prompt the patient to elaborate on the reports of daytime fatigue. Which question should the nurse ask?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to reflect on their own thoughts and identify potential causes of their fatigue. It allows the patient to express their own insights and helps the nurse understand the underlying reasons for the fatigue. Choice A focuses on stress, which may not be the main cause of fatigue. Choice C is irrelevant to exploring the fatigue further. Choice D assumes that lack of sleep is the main issue, which may not be the case for the patient.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is attempting to prompt the patient to elaborate on the reports of daytime fatigue. Which question should the nurse ask?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to reflect on potential causes of their fatigue, leading to a more in-depth exploration of the issue. Option A focuses on stress, not necessarily fatigue. Option C is too specific and may not uncover underlying causes. Option D assumes sleep duration is the only factor contributing to fatigue.
Question 6 of 9
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, hormone replacement therapy is needed due to the removal of the pituitary gland. This surgery is typically done to treat pituitary carcinoma, making choice C the correct answer. Pituitary carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the pituitary gland. Esophageal carcinoma affects the esophagus, laryngeal carcinoma affects the larynx, and colorectal carcinoma affects the colon and rectum. Therefore, the correct choice, C, is the only one related to the pituitary gland and the procedure described.
Question 7 of 9
The NAP states that was busy and had not had a chance to tell the nurse yet. The patient begins to complain of feeling dizzy and light-headed. The blood pressure is rechecked and it has dropped even lower. In which phase of the nursing process did the nurse first make an error? NursingStoreRN
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. In the scenario, the nurse failed to assess the patient's condition promptly after the patient complained of feeling dizzy and light-headed. Assessment is the first phase of the nursing process and involves collecting data to identify the patient's health status. By not reassessing the patient's vital signs and symptoms, the nurse missed an opportunity to detect the worsening condition. The other choices are incorrect because the error occurred before diagnosis (B), implementation (C), and evaluation (D) phases. In diagnosis, the nurse identifies the patient's problems; in implementation, the nurse carries out the care plan; and in evaluation, the nurse assesses the effectiveness of interventions.
Question 8 of 9
A client with HIV has been prescribed anti viral medications. What instructions related to administration of medications should the nurse give such a client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Timing: Antiviral medications should be taken as prescribed to maintain consistent drug levels in the body. 2. Around meals: Taking medications with or without food can affect absorption, so timing around meals helps with consistency. 3. Compliance: Following the timing instructions increases medication effectiveness and reduces the risk of drug resistance. Other Choices: B) Avoiding harsh sunlight: Not directly related to medication administration; may be a precaution for other reasons. C) Having medications with fruit juice: This is not a standard instruction for antiviral medications; may not be suitable for all medications. D) Increasing dose for worsening symptoms: This is dangerous and should only be done under healthcare provider supervision; self-adjusting medication doses can be harmful.
Question 9 of 9
Why would a Heimlich maneuver be performed on a client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Heimlich maneuver is performed to clear the airway if a client is choking and cannot speak or breathe after swallowing food. Step 1: Assess the situation and confirm airway obstruction. Step 2: Stand behind the client, wrap your arms around their waist, and deliver upward abdominal thrusts. Step 3: Repeat thrusts until the object is dislodged. Other choices are incorrect as they do not address airway obstruction. A: Increasing medication absorption is not a purpose of the Heimlich maneuver. C: Preventing falls and D: Maintaining extremities in proper position are not related to choking emergencies.