ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff. does the nurse understand are the reasons a patient with pulmonary edema is given morphine sulphate? i.To reduce anxiety iv.To increase BP ii.To relieve chest pain v.To reduce preload and afterload iii.To strengthen heart contractions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because morphine sulfate is given to a patient with pulmonary edema to reduce anxiety (i) and to reduce preload and afterload (v). Morphine sulfate does not increase blood pressure (ii), relieve chest pain (iii), or strengthen heart contractions (iv) in the context of pulmonary edema. Choice A is incorrect because it includes increasing BP, which is not a reason for giving morphine sulfate in this case. Choice B is incorrect because it includes strengthening heart contractions, which is not a reason for administering morphine sulfate. Choice D is incorrect because it includes relieving chest pain, which is not a primary purpose of giving morphine sulfate to a patient with pulmonary edema.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is treated with IV methylprednisolone (Solu-medrol) for emphysema. What is the purpose of corticosteroid treatment in lung disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce airway inflammation. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are used in emphysema to reduce inflammation in the airways, which can help improve lung function and symptoms. Corticosteroids work by suppressing the immune response that leads to inflammation in the airways. This can help decrease swelling, mucus production, and constriction of the airways, all of which contribute to the symptoms of emphysema. Dry secretions (choice A) and improving oxygen-carrying capacity (choice B) are not the primary purposes of corticosteroid treatment in emphysema. Treating infection that causes a low level of hemoglobin (choice C) is not relevant to corticosteroid treatment for emphysema.
Question 3 of 9
The NAP states that was busy and had not had a chance to tell the nurse yet. The patient begins to complain of feeling dizzy and light-headed. The blood pressure is rechecked and it has dropped even lower. In which phase of the nursing process did the nurse first make an error? NursingStoreRN
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. In this scenario, the nurse failed to assess the patient's condition promptly after being informed of feeling dizzy and light-headed. Assessment involves collecting data to identify actual or potential health problems. By not promptly assessing the patient's worsening condition, the nurse missed an essential step in the nursing process. Choice B: Diagnosis comes after assessment and involves identifying the patient's health problems based on collected data. Choice C: Implementation is the phase where the nurse carries out the plan of care. Choice D: Evaluation occurs after implementation to determine if the interventions were effective.
Question 4 of 9
To combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, the nurse would administer an:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. Administering an antiemetic helps to manage these side effects and improve the patient's comfort and compliance with treatment. Antibiotics (choice B) are used to treat bacterial infections and are not directly related to combating chemotherapy side effects. Antimetabolites (choice C) are a type of chemotherapy drug, not used to combat its side effects. Anticoagulants (choice D) are used to prevent blood clots and are not indicated for managing chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting.
Question 5 of 9
The NAP states that was busy and had not had a chance to tell the nurse yet. The patient begins to complain of feeling dizzy and light-headed. The blood pressure is rechecked and it has dropped even lower. In which phase of the nursing process did the nurse first make an error? NursingStoreRN
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. In the scenario, the nurse failed to assess the patient's condition promptly after the patient complained of feeling dizzy and light-headed. Assessment is the first phase of the nursing process and involves collecting data to identify the patient's health status. By not reassessing the patient's vital signs and symptoms, the nurse missed an opportunity to detect the worsening condition. The other choices are incorrect because the error occurred before diagnosis (B), implementation (C), and evaluation (D) phases. In diagnosis, the nurse identifies the patient's problems; in implementation, the nurse carries out the care plan; and in evaluation, the nurse assesses the effectiveness of interventions.
Question 6 of 9
Which organ(s) is/are most at risk for dysfunction in a patient with a potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Heart. A potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest. The heart is highly sensitive to potassium levels, as it plays a crucial role in regulating the heart's electrical activity. Elevated potassium levels can disrupt this balance, leading to serious cardiac complications. Summary: A: Lungs - Not directly affected by potassium levels. B: Liver - Not directly affected by potassium levels. C: Kidneys - Kidneys regulate potassium levels but are not the most at risk for dysfunction in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A client with primary diabetes insipidus is ready for discharge on desmopressin (DDAVP). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.” Rationale: 1. Desmopressin is available in intranasal form for diabetes insipidus. 2. Nasal discharge or blockage may prevent proper absorption of the medication. 3. Instructing the client about this potential issue ensures optimal drug effectiveness. Summary: A: Incorrect. Temperature of desmopressin suspension doesn't affect its efficacy. B: Incorrect. A medical identification bracelet is necessary for chronic conditions like diabetes insipidus. D: Incorrect. Monitoring fluid intake and output is crucial when taking desmopressin.
Question 8 of 9
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, hormone replacement therapy is needed due to the removal of the pituitary gland. This surgery is typically done to treat pituitary carcinoma, making choice C the correct answer. Pituitary carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the pituitary gland. Esophageal carcinoma affects the esophagus, laryngeal carcinoma affects the larynx, and colorectal carcinoma affects the colon and rectum. Therefore, the correct choice, C, is the only one related to the pituitary gland and the procedure described.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fine needle aspiration. This procedure involves inserting a thin needle into the lump to extract cells for examination. It provides a definitive diagnosis of breast cancer by analyzing the cells for cancerous features. Breast self-examination (A) is a screening tool but cannot confirm a diagnosis. Mammography (B) is used for screening and detecting abnormalities but also requires further testing for diagnosis. Chest x-ray (D) is not used to diagnose breast cancer.