Which of the ff diets does the nurse recommend for clients with hypertension under the physicians guidance?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The DASH diet is specifically designed to help lower blood pressure, making it the most appropriate choice for clients with hypertension. Step 2: The DASH diet emphasizes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and low-fat dairy, all of which are beneficial for managing hypertension. Step 3: The diet also limits sodium intake, which is crucial for controlling blood pressure. Step 4: The other options (A, B, and C) do not have the same evidence-based focus on hypertension management and may not be as effective in lowering blood pressure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen therapy. This is the priority intervention because a high temperature and diaphoresis indicate potential respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy can help improve oxygenation and support respiratory function. Providing frequent linen changes (B) is important for hygiene but not the priority. Fluid intake (C) is essential but not as urgent as addressing respiratory distress. Maintaining complete bed rest (D) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation takes precedence in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystagmus. A phenytoin blood level of 35 mcg/ml is above the therapeutic range (usually 10-20 mcg/ml). Excessive levels can lead to symptoms such as nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement commonly seen with phenytoin toxicity. Nystagmus is a known side effect of phenytoin overdose. Choices B and C are incorrect because a level of 35 mcg/ml is not within the normal therapeutic range, so symptoms would be expected. Choice D, Slurred speech, is not typically associated with phenytoin toxicity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (4 hours) because parenteral ampicillin should be administered within 1 hour of mixing. This is crucial to ensure efficacy and prevent bacterial growth in the solution. Choice A (1 hour) is incorrect because it does not allow enough time for administration after mixing. Choice C (2 hours) is also incorrect as it exceeds the recommended time limit. Choice D (8 hours) is incorrect as it exceeds the safe window for administration post-mixing, increasing the risk of bacterial contamination and reduced effectiveness. Thus, the optimal timeframe for administering parenteral ampicillin after mixing is within 4 hours to maintain its therapeutic benefits.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C: 0.25 mg is the correct daily dosage of Digoxin for adults with heart failure. This dosage is within the usual range of 0.125-0.25 mg. It helps improve heart function and manage heart failure symptoms. A: 0.005 mg is too low and ineffective. B: 0.025 mg is also too low for therapeutic effect. D: 2.5 mg is too high and may lead to toxicity in most adult patients.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Comparing the patient’s present weight with her last weight. This is the most direct and reliable method to assess volume depletion due to fluid loss. By comparing the patient's current weight with her last weight, you can easily determine if there has been a significant decrease in weight indicating fluid loss and potential hypovolemia. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Measuring the quantity and specific gravity of her urine output - This method may provide some information about hydration status, but it is not as direct or reliable as comparing weight changes. B: Taking her blood pressure - While blood pressure can indicate hypovolemia, it may not provide immediate insight into volume depletion caused by diarrhea. D: Administering the oral water test - This test is not commonly used to assess volume depletion and may not be as effective or quick as comparing weight changes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Anemia is a condition where there is a decrease in the concentration of red blood cells. 2. Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body's tissues, so a decrease in their concentration leads to reduced oxygen delivery. 3. This decrease in red blood cell concentration can be measured through a decrease in hematocrit levels. 4. Choices A and B are incorrect because anemia involves a decrease, not an increase, in red blood cells and hemoglobin. 5. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions "decreased blood count cells," which is not a specific term related to anemia. Summary: The correct answer is C because anemia is characterized by a decrease in the concentration of red blood cells, leading to reduced oxygen delivery, while the other choices are incorrect due to inaccuracies in describing anemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms after age 40 for early breast cancer detection. 2. Mammograms are most effective for women aged 40 and older in detecting breast cancer. 3. Regular mammograms can help detect breast cancer at an early stage, improving treatment outcomes. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Mammograms should start at age 40, not after the birth of the first child. C: Mammograms are not recommended after the first menstrual period; they should start at age 40. D: Mammograms should be done annually after age 40, not every 3 years between ages 20 and 40.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the GI tract helps determine the client's readiness for feeding. Bowel sounds indicate gut motility, last BM assesses bowel function, and distention indicates possible issues. Option B is incorrect as it pertains more to neurological assessment. Option C is not a priority assessment before feeding. Option D is incorrect as formula should be warmed to room temperature before feeding to prevent GI upset.