ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the ff. conditions places a patient at risk for respiratory complications following his splenectomy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An incision near the diaphragm. Following a splenectomy, an incision near the diaphragm can lead to respiratory complications due to potential irritation or injury to the diaphragm. This can result in impaired breathing and increased risk of respiratory issues such as pneumonia. A: A low platelet count is not directly related to respiratory complications following a splenectomy. B: Early ambulation is generally encouraged to prevent complications such as blood clots but does not specifically impact respiratory complications. D: Early discharge may not directly lead to respiratory complications, as long as the patient is adequately monitored postoperatively.
Question 2 of 5
A client has squamous cell cancer of the right lung that has metastasized to the brain. In addition to chemotherapy for lung cancer, the physician prescribes lomustine (CeeNU), 100 mg/m2 as a single dose, to treat the brain metastasis. What are the major administration and excretion routes of lomustine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: I.V. administration and urinary excretion. Lomustine is typically administered intravenously, allowing for rapid systemic distribution. The drug is metabolized in the liver and excreted primarily through the kidneys, thus the urinary route. This choice is correct as lomustine's pharmacokinetics align with this pattern. A: Oral administration and urinary - While some drugs are administered orally, lomustine is not typically given orally due to poor bioavailability. C: I.V. administration and fecal excretion - Lomustine is not primarily excreted via the feces, making this choice incorrect. D: Oral administration and fecal excretion - Lomustine is not primarily excreted via the feces, making this choice incorrect.
Question 3 of 5
On a visit to the gynecologist, a client complains of urinary frequency, pelvic discomfort, and weight loss. After a complete physical examination, blood studies, and a pelvic examination with a Papanicolaou test, the physician diagnoses stage IV ovarian cancer. The nurse expects to prepare the client for which initial treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial treatment for stage IV ovarian cancer is major surgery (Choice C). This is because at this advanced stage, surgery is typically performed to debulk the tumor and remove as much cancerous tissue as possible, followed by chemotherapy to target any remaining cancer cells. Radiation therapy (Choice A) is not typically the initial treatment for ovarian cancer. Chemotherapy (Choice B) is often used in combination with surgery, but surgery is usually the first line of treatment for stage IV disease. Choosing no treatment (Choice D) would be detrimental as the cancer is advanced and requires immediate intervention.
Question 4 of 5
A client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to expect:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hair loss. Radiation therapy targets fast-growing cancer cells, which can also affect healthy cells such as those in hair follicles, leading to hair loss. This adverse effect occurs commonly with radiation therapy due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells. Hair loss is a well-known side effect that clients undergoing radiation therapy are often prepared for. The other choices, B: Fatigue, C: Stomatitis, and D: Vomiting, are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but hair loss is specifically associated with radiation treatment due to its effect on hair follicles. Fatigue is a common side effect of cancer treatment in general, stomatitis is more commonly associated with chemotherapy, and vomiting can be a side effect of radiation but is not as directly linked as hair loss.
Question 5 of 5
A client is undergoing a diagnostic work-up for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client’s history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryptorchidism. Cryptorchidism, or undescended testicle, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer as the undescended testicle is more prone to developing cancerous changes. This condition increases the risk of testicular cancer even if the testicle is surgically corrected later in life. Other choices like A (Testosterone therapy during childhood) and B (Sexually transmitted disease) are not linked to testicular cancer. Choice C (Early onset of puberty) is not a direct risk factor for testicular cancer.