Which of the ff. conditions places a patient at risk for respiratory complications following his splenectomy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An incision near the diaphragm. Following a splenectomy, an incision near the diaphragm can lead to respiratory complications due to potential irritation or injury to the diaphragm. This can result in impaired breathing and increased risk of respiratory issues such as pneumonia. A: A low platelet count is not directly related to respiratory complications following a splenectomy. B: Early ambulation is generally encouraged to prevent complications such as blood clots but does not specifically impact respiratory complications. D: Early discharge may not directly lead to respiratory complications, as long as the patient is adequately monitored postoperatively.

Correct Answer: E

Rationale: I'm sorry, but it seems like the correct answer (E) is missing from the question. Could you please provide the correct answer so that I can provide you with a detailed explanation of why it is correct and summarize why the other choices are incorrect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An incision near the diaphragm. Following a splenectomy, an incision near the diaphragm can lead to respiratory complications due to potential irritation or injury to the diaphragm. This can result in impaired breathing and increased risk of respiratory issues such as pneumonia. A: A low platelet count is not directly related to respiratory complications following a splenectomy. B: Early ambulation is generally encouraged to prevent complications such as blood clots but does not specifically impact respiratory complications. D: Early discharge may not directly lead to respiratory complications, as long as the patient is adequately monitored postoperatively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: inadequate supply of oxygen to the myocardium. Angina pectoris is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. This lack of oxygenated blood supply to the myocardium leads to ischemia, resulting in the characteristic chest pain. Choice A is incorrect as it refers to a decrease in alveolar surface area for gas exchange, which is related to conditions like emphysema, not angina. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to pulmonary circulation, not coronary circulation. Choice D is incorrect as an increase in alveolar surface area would not be a cause of angina pectoris.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis. With a serum glucose level of 618mg/dl, the client is likely experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis, leading to excessive urination (osmotic diuresis) and dehydration. The priority is to address fluid volume deficit to prevent hypovolemic shock. The other options are not the priority because: B: Decreased cardiac output is a result of the increased heart rate, not the primary issue. C: Imbalanced nutrition is important but not as urgent as fluid volume deficit. D: Ineffective thermoregulation is a concern but not the priority in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to notify the physician stat (choice D). Firstly, the patient presents with painful bladder spasms and blood-tinged urine, indicating a potential complication post-TURP. This warrants immediate medical attention to assess for possible bladder injury or hemorrhage. Giving Demerol (choice A) or B&O suppository (choice B) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue. Warming the irrigation solution (choice C) is not a priority in this situation and does not address the potential serious complications. Notifying the physician immediately allows for prompt evaluation and appropriate intervention to address the patient's condition effectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. This is the first action the nurse should take because it helps determine the severity of the allergy and how to best proceed with care. By understanding the specific type of reaction the patient experiences, the nurse can implement appropriate precautions and interventions to prevent any adverse reactions during the patient's stay. Choice A is incorrect because placing the patient in isolation is not necessary for a latex allergy. Choice C is incorrect as terminating the interview is premature and does not address the patient's allergy. Choice D is also incorrect as documenting the allergy is important but not the first action to take when assessing a patient's allergic reaction.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryptorchidism. Cryptorchidism, or undescended testicle, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer as the undescended testicle is more prone to developing cancerous changes. This condition increases the risk of testicular cancer even if the testicle is surgically corrected later in life. Other choices like A (Testosterone therapy during childhood) and B (Sexually transmitted disease) are not linked to testicular cancer. Choice C (Early onset of puberty) is not a direct risk factor for testicular cancer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Bacterial meningitis alters intracranial physiology by causing cerebral edema, raised intracranial pressure, and increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier. Cerebral edema is the accumulation of fluid in the brain tissue, leading to increased pressure. Raised intracranial pressure occurs due to the inflammation and swelling caused by the infection. Increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier allows substances to pass through that would normally be blocked, contributing to the inflammatory response. Therefore, all of these changes are interconnected and commonly observed in bacterial meningitis cases. Choices A, B, and C individually describe specific alterations seen in bacterial meningitis but do not encompass the full spectrum of changes that occur, making them incorrect options.