ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff. conditions places a patient at risk for respiratory complications following his splenectomy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An incision near the diaphragm. Following a splenectomy, an incision near the diaphragm can lead to respiratory complications due to potential irritation or injury to the diaphragm. This can result in impaired breathing and increased risk of respiratory issues such as pneumonia. A: A low platelet count is not directly related to respiratory complications following a splenectomy. B: Early ambulation is generally encouraged to prevent complications such as blood clots but does not specifically impact respiratory complications. D: Early discharge may not directly lead to respiratory complications, as long as the patient is adequately monitored postoperatively.
Question 2 of 9
In which of the ff circumstances should a nurse avoid using midline and mid clavicular sites for IV therapy? Choose all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To administer antineoplastic chemotherapy. This is because antineoplastic chemotherapy agents are highly irritating and toxic to the surrounding tissues. Using midline and mid clavicular sites for IV therapy in this case can increase the risk of extravasation, leading to tissue damage and potential complications. Incorrect choices: A: To administer solutions with a pH greater than 5 and less than 9 - pH of the solution does not directly affect the choice of site for IV therapy. C: To administer slow, low-volume infusions - Midline and mid clavicular sites can be appropriate for slow, low-volume infusions. D: To administer high-pressure bolus injections - While midline and mid clavicular sites may not be ideal for high-pressure bolus injections, the question specifically mentions IV therapy, not bolus injections.
Question 3 of 9
During the evaluation phase, what key action does the nurse perform?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the evaluation phase, the nurse performs the key action of determining the effectiveness of the care plan. This involves assessing whether the client's goals are being met, if interventions are achieving the desired outcomes, and if any modifications are necessary. This step is crucial to ensure the care plan is successful and the client's needs are being addressed appropriately. Choice A is incorrect because diagnosing the client's condition is typically done in the assessment phase, not during evaluation. Choice B is incorrect as identifying nursing interventions is part of the planning phase. Choice D is incorrect as developing goals and outcomes is part of the planning phase as well. Overall, the evaluation phase focuses on assessing the effectiveness of the care plan rather than diagnosing, identifying interventions, or developing goals.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is disease process characterized by a chronic progressive inflammation of the sacroiliac and costovertebral joints and adjacent soft tissue?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ankylosing spondylitis. This disease process is characterized by chronic progressive inflammation of the sacroiliac and costovertebral joints and adjacent soft tissue. Ankylosing spondylitis specifically affects the spine and large joints. Rheumatoid arthritis (A) is characterized by joint inflammation and primarily affects small joints. Scoliosis (B) is a condition characterized by an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, not inflammation of the sacroiliac and costovertebral joints. Kyphosis (C) is an excessive outward curvature of the spine, not related to inflammation of the sacroiliac and costovertebral joints.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff. conditions places a patient at risk for respiratory complications following his splenectomy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An incision near the diaphragm. Following a splenectomy, an incision near the diaphragm can lead to respiratory complications due to potential irritation or injury to the diaphragm. This can result in impaired breathing and increased risk of respiratory issues such as pneumonia. A: A low platelet count is not directly related to respiratory complications following a splenectomy. B: Early ambulation is generally encouraged to prevent complications such as blood clots but does not specifically impact respiratory complications. D: Early discharge may not directly lead to respiratory complications, as long as the patient is adequately monitored postoperatively.
Question 6 of 9
Which virus causes genital warts?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is the virus that causes genital warts. It is transmitted through sexual contact and is the most common sexually transmitted infection. Cytomegalovirus (A) does not cause genital warts. Herpes simplex virus type II (C) causes genital herpes, not warts. Human immunodeficiency virus (D) causes AIDS and weakens the immune system but does not directly cause genital warts.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following blood types would the nurse identify as the rarest?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (AB). AB blood type is the rarest because it is a result of inheriting both A and B alleles, making it less common in the population. AB individuals can only receive blood from other AB individuals due to their unique antigens. Blood types A, B, and O are more common in the population, with O being the most common as it is the universal donor. Blood type A and B are more common than AB since they only require one allele for their respective antigens. Thus, the rarity of AB blood type is due to the inheritance of both A and B alleles, making it the least common among the choices provided.
Question 8 of 9
. A client with a suspected left sided heart failure is scheduled to undergo a multigated acquisition scan. Which of the following actions is required before undergoing the test?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: - A: Diuretics are not necessary before the test and may affect test results. - B: Dehydration is not recommended before the test as it can impact cardiac function. - C: Medication to relieve cough is necessary to reduce any potential interference with the scan. - D: Administering analgesics is not required for the test and may not be relevant to the client's condition.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse will monitor J.E. for the following signs and symptoms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs and symptoms listed are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is a serious condition where blood clotting and bleeding occur simultaneously. Change in level of consciousness can indicate hypoperfusion from clotting in blood vessels. Tachypnea and tachycardia can result from tissue hypoxia. Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical signs and symptoms of DIC. Choice B suggests a possible myocardial infarction or acute coronary syndrome. Choice C indicates a possible thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or acute limb ischemia. Choice D suggests a mix of symptoms that do not typically present together in DIC.