ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the ff causes memory cells to convert to plasma cells?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Re-exposure to a specific antigen. Memory cells are formed after initial exposure to an antigen. Upon re-exposure to the same antigen, memory cells quickly recognize and respond, converting into plasma cells to produce antibodies. This process is known as secondary immune response. Incorrect choices: A: An organ transplant - Organ transplant does not involve the conversion of memory cells to plasma cells. C: Release of lymphokines - Lymphokines are signaling molecules secreted by immune cells but do not directly cause memory cells to convert to plasma cells. D: Initial exposure to an antigen - Initial exposure to an antigen leads to the formation of memory cells, not their conversion to plasma cells upon re-exposure.
Question 2 of 5
A client with autoimmune thrombocytopenia and a platelet count of 8,000/ul develops epistaxis and melena. Treatment with corticosteroids and immunoglobulins has been unsuccessful, and the physician recommends a splenectomy. The client states, “I don’t need surgery-this will go away on its own”. In considering her response to the client, the nurse must depend on the ethical principle of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that upholds an individual's right to make decisions about their own healthcare. In this scenario, the client is expressing her desire to not undergo surgery, which is her right as an autonomous individual. The nurse must respect her decision even if it goes against medical advice. Beneficence (A) is the ethical principle of doing good for the patient, but in this case, respecting the client's autonomy takes precedence. Advocacy (B) involves supporting the client's best interests, which could align with autonomy in this case. Justice (D) refers to fairness and equal treatment, but it is not directly applicable to the client's decision regarding surgery.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse assesses a client shortly after kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the physician immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine output of 20mL/hour. This is a critical finding after kidney transplant surgery as it indicates potential kidney dysfunction or acute kidney injury. Decreased urine output can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which can be life-threatening. Immediate physician notification is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate danger. Serum potassium level of 4.9mEq/L is slightly elevated but not critical. Temperature of 99.2F (37.3C) is within normal limits for postoperative care. Serum sodium level of 135mEq/L is also normal and does not warrant immediate physician notification.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a 32-year old client admitted with pernicious anemia. Which set of findings should the nurse expect when assessing the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue. Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, leading to symptoms such as pallor (due to decreased red blood cells), tachycardia (as the heart works harder to compensate for decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood), and a sore tongue (due to inflammation of the tongue). Choice A is incorrect because bradycardia would not be expected in pernicious anemia, and reduced pulse is not a typical finding. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is not a common symptom of pernicious anemia. Choice C is incorrect because angina and double vision are not typical findings of pernicious anemia, and anorexia is more likely due to other causes.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving antibiotics to treat a gram-negative bacterial infection. Because antibiotics destroy the body’s normal flora, the nurse must monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diarrhea. Antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of gut bacteria, leading to diarrhea. This occurs due to the overgrowth of harmful bacteria in the intestines. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to prevent dehydration and further complications. Platelet dysfunction (A), stomatitis (B), and oliguria/dysuria (C) are not typically associated with the disruption of normal flora by antibiotics. These symptoms are more likely related to other conditions or side effects of medications, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.