ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff. actions would the nurse include in the plan of care to reduce the symptoms of the patient who has vertigo?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid sudden movements. Vertigo is a type of dizziness where a person feels like they're spinning or the world around them is spinning. Sudden movements can worsen vertigo symptoms. By avoiding sudden movements, the nurse can help reduce the patient's vertigo symptoms. Avoiding noises (A) may help with other conditions like migraines, but it is not specifically helpful for vertigo. Encouraging fluid intake (B) is important for overall health but does not directly address vertigo symptoms. Administering analgesics (D) may help with pain but will not address the underlying cause of vertigo. Therefore, choosing option C is the most appropriate action to include in the plan of care for reducing vertigo symptoms.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse assesses the motor functions during a neurologic examination of a client. Which of the ff steps will help the nurse perform the examination effectively? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Allowing the client to grasp the nurse's hand firmly assesses grip strength and motor coordination. 2. This step helps evaluate the client's ability to follow instructions and perform a coordinated motor task accurately. 3. Assessing grip strength is essential in determining any muscle weakness or neurological deficits. 4. It also provides insight into the client's motor function and coordination abilities. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on sensory functions rather than motor functions. - Choice C assesses fine motor skills, not grip strength and coordination. - Choice D evaluates cognition and logic, which are not directly related to motor function assessment.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is assigned to care for a postoperative client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he’s impotent and says he’s concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client’s care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. This is the most appropriate intervention as it addresses the client's concern about impotence affecting his marriage by offering specialized help from a professional who can provide counseling and guidance on managing sexual issues related to diabetes. Referring the client to a sex counselor ensures that he receives expert support in addressing his specific concerns and helps improve his overall well-being and quality of life. A: Encouraging the client to ask questions about personality sexuality may not address the underlying issue of impotence and its impact on the marriage. B: Providing time for privacy is important but may not directly address the client's concerns about impotence. C: Providing support for the spouse or significant other is beneficial, but the primary focus should be on addressing the client's specific concerns about impotence.
Question 4 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin (Ecotrin), 600mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the physician if which adverse drug reaction occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tinnitus. Aspirin can cause tinnitus (ringing in the ears) as an adverse drug reaction, which can indicate potential ototoxicity. Tinnitus is an important side effect that should be reported promptly to the physician to prevent further auditory complications. Dysuria (A), leg cramps (C), and constipation (D) are not typically associated with aspirin use and are less urgent compared to tinnitus. Reporting these side effects may still be necessary but are not as critical as tinnitus in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. is a side effect most likely to be reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect is a dry, persistent cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. This is a distinctive side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Acne (A), diarrhea (B), and heartburn (D) are not commonly associated with enalapril use and are less likely side effects.
Question 6 of 9
Pulmonary edema is characterized by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Pulmonary edema is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation. 2. Elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure signifies heart failure, a common cause of pulmonary edema. 3. A rise in pulmonary venous pressure is a consequence of increased hydrostatic pressure. Therefore, all three alterations (A, B, D) are characteristic of pulmonary edema. Option C is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are all individually associated with pulmonary edema and collectively represent the condition.
Question 7 of 9
A client with supraglottic cancer undergoes a partial laryngectomy. Postoperatively, a cuffed tracheostomy tube is in place. When removing secretions that pool above the cuff, the nurse should instruct the client to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exhale deeply as the nurse re-inflates the cuff. Rationale: 1. When the cuff of the tracheostomy tube is deflated, the client should be instructed to exhale deeply to prevent aspiration of secretions. 2. Exhaling helps to clear the airway by pushing secretions out of the trachea, reducing the risk of aspiration. 3. Inhaling or holding the breath while the cuff is being re-inflated can increase the risk of inhaling secretions. 4. Coughing as the cuff is being deflated (choice A) may not be as effective in clearing secretions as exhaling deeply. 5. Taking a deep breath as the nurse deflates the cuff (choice C) may not be as effective as exhaling deeply in preventing aspiration. In summary, choice D is the correct answer because exhaling deeply helps clear secretions and reduce the risk of aspiration, while the other choices may
Question 8 of 9
A nurse in the emergency department is completing an emergency assessment for a teenager just admitted from a car crash. Which of the following is objective data?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because "Unable to palpate femoral pulse in left leg" is an objective finding that can be measured or observed without interpretation or bias. It provides concrete, measurable information about the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and C are subjective data as they rely on the patient's feelings, emotions, and perceptions, which can vary and are open to interpretation. Objective data is crucial in making accurate assessments and decisions in healthcare.
Question 9 of 9
A client receives a sealed radiation implant to treat cervical cancer. When caring for this client, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bodily fluids and excretions (urine, feces, vomitus) can become contaminated with radiation from the implant. Therefore, they should be considered highly radioactive and handled appropriately. Choice B is incorrect because the client may remain radioactive for a longer period than 10 days post-implant removal. Choice C is incorrect because soiled linens should be handled according to radiation safety protocols and removed promptly. Choice D is incorrect because bed rest is not necessary unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider; the client should be encouraged to move around as tolerated to prevent complications.