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Basic Principles of Pharmacology Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the curves best depicts the log dose-response curve of that agonist when a xed dose of a competitive α antagonist is given concomitantly?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding dose-response curves is essential for predicting the effects of drugs. When a fixed dose of a competitive α antagonist is given concomitantly with an agonist, it will shift the dose-response curve to the right. This means that higher doses of the agonist will be needed to achieve the same effect, indicating competitive inhibition. Option B (Curve Q) depicts this scenario accurately. Curve Q would show a rightward shift, indicating that more of the agonist is needed to produce the same response due to the competitive antagonist's presence. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the expected change in the dose-response curve when a competitive α antagonist is introduced. Curve P (Option A) might show a leftward shift, which is not expected with a competitive antagonist. Curve R (Option C) and Curve S (Option D) may show different types of responses but not the specific scenario described in the question. Understanding these concepts is crucial for pharmacology students as it helps them predict drug interactions and effects in clinical scenarios. It also reinforces the importance of knowing how different drugs interact and affect the body's responses, which is vital for safe and effective patient care.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following adverse drug reactions best explains the patient's disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The adverse drug reaction that best explains the patient's disorder is an idiosyncratic reaction. Idiosyncratic reactions are unpredictable and occur rarely in response to a drug. In this case, the baby's presentation of microcephaly, broad nasal bridge, short nose, cleft palate, and hypoplasia of the distal phalanges are consistent with a teratogenic effect of a drug taken by the mother during pregnancy. The use of phenytoin for seizures during pregnancy is known to be associated with such birth defects, indicating an idiosyncratic reaction.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following permeation processes mediated the man's intestinal absorption of ethanol?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Aqueous diffusion. Ethanol, being a small, hydrophilic molecule, can pass through the aqueous pores in the intestinal membrane via passive diffusion. This process does not require energy input and is driven by the concentration gradient. Option B) Bulk flow transport is not relevant in the context of intestinal absorption of ethanol as it refers to the movement of large amounts of fluid and solutes together. Option C) Facilitated diffusion involves the use of carrier proteins to help substances across the membrane, but ethanol does not rely on these proteins for absorption. Option D) Active transport requires energy to move molecules against their concentration gradient, which is not the case with ethanol absorption. Educationally, understanding the permeation processes involved in drug absorption is crucial in pharmacology. The principles of passive diffusion, facilitated diffusion, and active transport are fundamental in comprehending how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the body. This knowledge is essential for pharmacists and healthcare professionals to ensure the efficacy and safety of drug therapies.
Question 4 of 5
A 59-year-old Japanese man with atrial fibrillation presented to his physician complaining of red urine. The man had been receiving a standard dose of warfarin, which is an anticoagulant drug biotransformed by CYP2C9 isozyme. Which of the following was the most likely cause of the patient's disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely cause of the patient's disorder is a genetic polymorphism of CYP2C9. Genetic polymorphisms can affect the metabolism of drugs, including warfarin, leading to variations in drug response and potential adverse effects. In this case, the patient's red urine may be a result of altered metabolism of warfarin due to genetic variations in the CYP2C9 isozyme, which plays a key role in the biotransformation of the drug. This can result in increased levels of unmetabolized warfarin in the body, potentially leading to adverse effects such as red urine.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following terms best defines a beta-blocker that binds reversibly to beta receptors?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A noncompetitive antagonist best defines a beta-blocker that binds reversibly to beta receptors because it binds to a site on the receptor that is not the same as the agonist binding site, thereby preventing the receptor from being activated by the agonist. This type of antagonist does not compete with the agonist for binding to the receptor, making it an effective blocker of receptor activation. In this case, the drug had no intrinsic activity and only bound reversibly to beta receptors, indicating its role as a noncompetitive antagonist.