ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which nursing intervention is appropriate for the nurse to take when setting up supplies for a client who requires a blood transfusion?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because priming the tubing of the blood administration set with 0.9% NS solution ensures that there are no air bubbles in the tubing, preventing air embolism when the blood transfusion starts. This step also ensures that the blood flows smoothly and prevents clotting in the tubing. Choice A is incorrect because adding IV medication in the blood bag can lead to incompatibility issues and should not be done without proper verification and approval. Choice B is incorrect because leaving the blood bag at room temperature for an hour can lead to bacterial growth in the blood, increasing the risk of infection when transfused. Choice D is unrelated to setting up supplies for a blood transfusion and does not address the immediate nursing intervention required in this situation.
Question 2 of 5
After being in remission from Hodgkin’s disease for 18 months, a client develops a fever of unknown origin. The physician orders a blind liver biopsy to rule out advancing Hodgkin’sdisease and infection. Twenty-four hours after the biopsy, the client has a fever, complains of severe abdominal pain, and seems increasingly confused. The nurse suspects that these finding result from:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perforation of the colon caused by the liver biopsy. The symptoms of fever, severe abdominal pain, and confusion are indicative of peritonitis, which can result from a bowel perforation during the liver biopsy procedure. Perforation of the colon can lead to leakage of bowel contents into the peritoneal cavity, causing inflammation, infection, and systemic symptoms. This is a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Incorrect options: A: Bleeding in the liver caused by the liver biopsy would present with symptoms such as hypotension and signs of internal bleeding, not confusion and severe abdominal pain. C: An allergic reaction to contrast media would typically present with symptoms such as rash, itching, or respiratory distress, not fever, severe abdominal pain, and confusion. D: Normal post procedural pain would not cause confusion and a change in the level of consciousness, which indicates a more serious underlying issue like bowel perforation.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination on the same day each month to establish a routine, making it easier to remember and detect any changes. This consistency helps in early detection of abnormalities. Incorrect Choices: A: Doing it at the end of the menstrual cycle may not be consistent due to varying cycle lengths. B: Doing it on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle may not be practical and could lead to missing potential abnormalities. D: Doing it immediately after her menstrual period may not provide a consistent schedule for self-examination.
Question 4 of 5
A client is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The physician prescribes mitomycin (Mutamycin) with other chemotherapeutic agents for palliative treatment. How mitomycin does exert its cytotoxic effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. Mitomycin is an alkylating agent that works by cross-linking DNA, preventing DNA synthesis and leading to cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against rapidly dividing cells like cancer cells. Choice B, inhibiting ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis, is incorrect as mitomycin primarily targets DNA synthesis. Choice C, being cell cycle-phase specific, is incorrect as mitomycin affects cells in all phases of the cell cycle. Choice D, inhibiting protein synthesis, is incorrect because mitomycin's primary mode of action is on DNA replication, not protein synthesis.
Question 5 of 5
A client in the final stages of terminal cancer tells the nurse: “I wish I could be just be allowed to die. I’m tired of fighting this illness. I have lived life a good life. I only continue my chemotherapy and radiation treatment because my family wants me to.” What is the best nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Would you like to talk to a psychologist about your thoughts and feelings?" This response acknowledges the client's emotional distress and offers professional support. A psychologist can provide counseling and help the client explore their feelings and concerns about end-of-life decisions. Choice B is incorrect because it assumes the client's spiritual beliefs are the primary concern, neglecting the emotional and psychological aspects. Choice C involves more people in the decision-making process without addressing the client's individual needs. Choice D is dismissive and does not offer any support or explore the client's feelings further. In summary, choice A is the best response because it prioritizes the client's emotional well-being and offers appropriate support through professional counseling.