ATI RN
jarvis health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which nursing diagnosis applies to a client stating they feel incomplete due to infertility?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Body Image Disturbance. Infertility can impact one's perception of self and body image, leading to feelings of incompleteness. This nursing diagnosis addresses the emotional distress related to altered self-perception. A: Risk for Self Harm is not directly related to the client's statement about feeling incomplete due to infertility. C: Ineffective Role Performance doesn't specifically address the client's feelings of incompleteness related to infertility. D: Powerlessness may not fully capture the client's emotional struggle with their body image and feelings of incompleteness due to infertility.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include when teaching parents about feeding their infant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using the defrost setting on microwave ovens can help safely heat breast milk or formula for the infant without compromising its quality. This method ensures that the milk is heated evenly and prevents hot spots that could burn the baby's mouth. Choice B is incorrect because refrigerating partially used bottles can lead to bacterial growth and contamination. Choice C is incorrect as mixing water and concentrate in different ratios can result in either too diluted or too concentrated formula, which can be harmful to the infant. Choice D is incorrect as adding new formula to partially used bottles can also lead to bacterial growth and spoilage.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is preparing to assess a hospitalized patient who is experiencing significant shortness of breath. How should the nurse proceed with the assessment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it focuses on prioritizing the assessment by first addressing the immediate problem of shortness of breath. By examining only the body areas related to the current issue, the nurse can quickly gather essential information to manage the patient's respiratory distress effectively. Once the critical issue is stabilized, a complete assessment can be conducted to identify any underlying problems or potential complications. This approach ensures that the nurse addresses the most urgent needs first before proceeding to a comprehensive assessment. Choice B is incorrect because it suggests only examining body areas directly related to the hospitalization problem, which may overlook other critical issues contributing to the shortness of breath. Choice C is incorrect as shortness of breath is not a normal finding and should not be dismissed without further evaluation. Choice D is incorrect as examining the entire body without focusing on the immediate issue may delay appropriate interventions for the patient's respiratory distress.
Question 4 of 9
When using the mnemonic PQRSTU to help remember all the points of a patient's perception of his or her problem, what does the "S" signify?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Severity. In the PQRSTU mnemonic, "S" stands for Severity, which refers to the intensity or seriousness of the symptoms experienced by the patient. This is crucial in assessing the impact of the problem on the patient's health and well-being. Incorrect choices: A: Swelling - Swelling is a physical symptom and does not encompass all aspects of the patient's perception. B: Subjectivity - While the patient's subjective experience is important, it does not specifically refer to severity. D: Symptoms - While symptoms are part of the patient's perception, the "S" in PQRSTU specifically focuses on the severity of those symptoms.
Question 5 of 9
Which lab values indicate a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. High HDL cholesterol is considered beneficial as it helps remove LDL cholesterol from arteries, reducing the risk of plaque buildup. 2. Low HDL cholesterol is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. 3. Low total cholesterol may not necessarily indicate a decreased risk, as it could be due to low levels of protective HDL cholesterol. 4. Low triglycerides, while generally considered good, do not directly indicate a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease like high HDL cholesterol does. In summary, high HDL cholesterol is the correct answer as it plays a crucial role in reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease by removing LDL cholesterol, whereas the other choices do not offer the same protective benefits.
Question 6 of 9
What is the priority action when a client with a history of seizures experiences one?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Place in a safe environment. This is the priority action because it ensures the client's safety by preventing injury during the seizure. Placing the client in a safe environment involves removing any objects that could harm them, such as sharp objects or furniture. Positioning on their side (choice A) is important after the seizure to prevent aspiration. Applying warm compresses (choice C) is not indicated during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway (choice D) is not recommended as it can be dangerous during a seizure and should only be done if the client is not breathing after the seizure.
Question 7 of 9
Which finding indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: not pulling to a standing position. At 11-12 months, a child should be able to pull themselves to a standing position. Inability to do so suggests possible hip joint instability, a key risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip. Refusal to walk (A) is not specific to hip dysplasia. Negative Trendelenburg sign (C) indicates good hip abductor strength, which is not a risk factor. Negative Ortolani sign (D) is a maneuver used for hip joint assessment in infants and is not indicative of hip dysplasia risk at this age.
Question 8 of 9
What is the priority intervention when a client is experiencing respiratory distress?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer bronchodilators. When a client is experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention is to open up the airways to improve breathing. Bronchodilators help relax and widen the airways, making it easier for the client to breathe. This intervention addresses the immediate need for improved respiratory function. Administering corticosteroids (choices B and C) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority in acute respiratory distress. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice D) is important but does not directly address the underlying issue of airway constriction in respiratory distress.
Question 9 of 9
What is the most effective intervention for a client with a history of respiratory distress?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer albuterol. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps open airways, making it effective in treating respiratory distress. It works quickly to relieve symptoms such as shortness of breath and wheezing. Corticosteroids (B) may be used in conjunction with albuterol for severe cases, but albuterol is the immediate intervention. Providing pain relief (C) is not the primary intervention for respiratory distress. Nebulizers (D) are a delivery method for medications like albuterol, but the key intervention is administering the medication itself.