ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which neurotransmitter mediates the sympathetic response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter that mediates the sympathetic response. It is released by sympathetic nerve endings and acts on adrenergic receptors in various target organs to initiate the "fight or flight" response. Prostaglandin, acetylcholine, and serotonin do not directly mediate the sympathetic response and are involved in different physiological processes.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is aware that in communicating with an elderly client, the nurse will
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use a low-pitched voice. This is because elderly individuals often experience age-related hearing loss, especially in high frequencies. Using a low-pitched voice helps improve the clarity and understanding of communication. Incorrect choices: A: Leaning and shouting can be perceived as aggressive and disrespectful to the elderly client. C: Opening the mouth wide while talking does not enhance communication and might be seen as patronizing. D: Using a medium-pitched voice may still be difficult for the elderly client to hear clearly due to age-related hearing loss.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff symptoms is associated with AIDS related distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abnormal sensations such as burning and numbness. In AIDS-related DSP, damage to nerves causes abnormal sensations like burning and numbness. This is due to the progressive nerve damage affecting sensory functions. Staggering gait and muscle incoordination (A) are more common in conditions affecting motor nerves. Delusional thinking (C) is not a symptom of DSP. Incontinence (D) is not typically associated with DSP but may happen in more advanced stages due to loss of sensation.
Question 4 of 9
The following would be a symptom the nurse would expect to find during assessment of a patient with macular degeneration, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Loss of peripheral vision. Macular degeneration affects the central vision, specifically the macula, which is responsible for central vision and sharp detail. Loss of peripheral vision is not a typical symptom of macular degeneration. The macula is located in the center of the retina, so symptoms would relate to central vision impairments such as decreased ability to distinguish colors, loss of central vision, and loss of near vision. Peripheral vision is not primarily affected by macular degeneration, hence it is not an expected symptom.
Question 5 of 9
A client with advanced breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which adverse reaction immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vision changes. This is crucial to report immediately because tamoxifen can cause serious eye problems such as retinopathy. Vision changes could indicate a potentially serious adverse reaction that requires prompt medical attention to prevent permanent damage. Headache, hearing loss, and anorexia are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and are less urgent in nature. Reporting vision changes promptly can help prevent irreversible harm and ensure timely intervention.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse teaches a client newly diagnosed with diabetes how to administer insulin. What type of nursing intervention is this?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Independent intervention) Rationale: 1. Independent interventions are actions that nurses can initiate without a doctor's order. 2. Teaching a client how to administer insulin falls under the scope of nursing practice. 3. Nurses have the knowledge and authority to educate clients on self-care management. 4. This intervention does not require collaboration with other healthcare providers. Summary: B: Dependent interventions require a doctor's order. C: Interdependent interventions involve collaboration with other healthcare providers. D: Collaborative interventions involve working with other healthcare professionals.
Question 7 of 9
If the systolic BP is elevated and the diastolic BP is normal, the nurse recognizes that a patient is most likely to have which type of hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isolated systolic hypertension. This is because in isolated systolic hypertension, the systolic blood pressure is elevated while the diastolic blood pressure remains normal. This condition is common in older adults and is often related to aging and stiffening of the arteries. Primary hypertension (A) typically involves both elevated systolic and diastolic pressures. Secondary hypertension (C) is caused by an underlying condition. Hypertensive emergency (D) is characterized by severe elevations in both systolic and diastolic pressures with acute target organ damage.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash and suffers a right femur fracture. The leg is stabilized in a full leg cast. Otherwise, the patient has no other major injuries, is in good health, and reports only moderate discomfort. Which is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis the nurse will include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acute pain. The patient's right femur fracture would likely cause significant pain. Treating the pain is a priority to ensure the patient's comfort and promote healing. Posttrauma syndrome (A) is more applicable for patients experiencing emotional distress following a traumatic event. Constipation (B) may be a concern due to immobility but is not as immediate as managing pain. Anxiety (D) may be present but addressing the acute pain would likely alleviate some anxiety as well.
Question 9 of 9
If a client with increased pressure (ICP) demonstrates decorticate posturing, the nurse will observe:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because decorticate posturing is characterized by the flexion of elbows, wrists, and fingers, extension of elbows and knees, plantar flexion of feet. This pattern indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres or internal structures of the brain. In contrast, option A describes decerebrate posturing, which indicates more severe brain damage. Option C is incorrect as it describes a mixed pattern of posturing. Option D is also incorrect as it describes a different type of posturing called decerebrate posturing.