Which neurotransmitter mediates the sympathetic response?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter that mediates the sympathetic response. It is released by sympathetic nerve endings and acts on adrenergic receptors in various target organs to initiate the "fight or flight" response. Prostaglandin, acetylcholine, and serotonin do not directly mediate the sympathetic response and are involved in different physiological processes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: New set of tracheostomy tubes and Oxygen tank. Rationale: 1. New set of tracheostomy tubes: Essential for reinserting the cannulas to secure the airway. 2. Oxygen tank: To ensure James has a stable oxygen supply while the tracheostomy tubes are being reinserted. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Theophylline and Epinephrine - These medications are not directly related to managing a dislodged tracheostomy. C: Obturator and Kelly clamp - While these are useful tools for tracheostomy care, they are not the immediate equipment needed in this emergency situation. D: Sterile saline dressing - This is not relevant for a dislodged tracheostomy; the priority is securing the airway.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rice and lean chicken. A low residue diet aims to reduce fiber intake to ease digestion. Rice and lean chicken are low in fiber and easy to digest. Pasta with vegetables (B) contains high-fiber vegetables. Strawberry pie (C) is high in fiber due to fruit and crust. Tuna casserole (D) may contain high-fiber ingredients like noodles and vegetables. Therefore, A is the best choice for a low residue diet.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it encourages the novice nurse to independently observe the situation with a peer, validate the data, and discuss afterward. This approach promotes reflection, peer learning, and validation of collected data, which are essential for learning and growth. It allows the nurse to self-assess and correct errors through discussion and feedback. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the need for validation and peer feedback. Choice C is incorrect as repeating the same mistake without guidance does not promote learning. Choice D is incorrect as meeting with the nurse manager may not provide the same level of peer learning and validation as observing with a peer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it includes essential nursing interventions for a patient with head injuries like J.E. Skin care and position changes every 2 hours help prevent pressure ulcers. Maintaining alignment of extremities prevents contractures. Respiratory exercises aid in lung function. Option B lacks the crucial aspect of maintaining extremity alignment. Option C includes teaching the use of an overhead trapeze, which may not be appropriate for J.E. Option D lacks the instruction to maintain extremity alignment, which is crucial for preventing contractures in patients with head injuries.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C - the circulating and scrub nurse first assistant. The circulating nurse is responsible for counting needles, sponges, and instruments during the closing of the surgical incision to ensure nothing is left inside the patient. The scrub nurse first assistant also plays a crucial role in this process by assisting in the counting and keeping track of the items used during the procedure. The other choices are incorrect because the surgeon and anesthesiologist (A) are not typically involved in counting items during the surgical closure, the surgeon and the registered (B) may not have the necessary training for accurate counting, and the anesthesiologist and anesthetist (D) are not directly involved in the surgical closing process.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily intake and output. Monitoring fluid balance involves tracking the amount of fluids taken in and expelled from the body. Intake includes oral, IV, and tube feedings, while output includes urine, vomitus, diarrhea, and any other fluid losses. Daily intake and output provide a comprehensive view of a patient's fluid status, helping identify trends and potential issues. Vital signs (B) provide general information but not specific to fluid balance. Daily weight (C) can fluctuate due to various factors, not just fluid status. Skin turgor (D) is a late sign of dehydration and not as reliable as intake and output monitoring.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because drinking lots of water at night actually helps prevent UTIs by flushing out bacteria from the urinary tract. Holding the urge to urinate (Choice A) can increase the risk of UTIs as bacteria can multiply in stagnant urine. Insertion of instruments and catheters (Choice B) can introduce bacteria, leading to infection. Unhygienic cleaning after defecation (Choice D) can also introduce bacteria to the urinary tract, causing UTIs. Therefore, Choice C is the exception as it does not contribute to the common causes of UTIs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Independent intervention) Rationale: 1. Independent interventions are actions that nurses can initiate without a doctor's order. 2. Teaching a client how to administer insulin falls under the scope of nursing practice. 3. Nurses have the knowledge and authority to educate clients on self-care management. 4. This intervention does not require collaboration with other healthcare providers. Summary: B: Dependent interventions require a doctor's order. C: Interdependent interventions involve collaboration with other healthcare providers. D: Collaborative interventions involve working with other healthcare professionals.