ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which neurotransmitter mediates the sympathetic response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter that mediates the sympathetic response. It is released by sympathetic nerve endings and acts on adrenergic receptors in various target organs to initiate the "fight or flight" response. Prostaglandin, acetylcholine, and serotonin do not directly mediate the sympathetic response and are involved in different physiological processes.
Question 2 of 9
If a client with increased pressure (ICP) demonstrates decorticate posturing, the nurse will observe:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because decorticate posturing is characterized by the flexion of elbows, wrists, and fingers, extension of elbows and knees, plantar flexion of feet. This pattern indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres or internal structures of the brain. In contrast, option A describes decerebrate posturing, which indicates more severe brain damage. Option C is incorrect as it describes a mixed pattern of posturing. Option D is also incorrect as it describes a different type of posturing called decerebrate posturing.
Question 3 of 9
What should be included in the teaching plan to young adults about the spread of AIDS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because educating young adults about the rise in heterosexual transmission of HIV is crucial to prevent the spread of AIDS. This information helps them understand the importance of safe sex practices and awareness of risks. Choice B is incorrect as HIV transmission in children is not primarily due to sexual abuse. Choice C is also incorrect as herpes zoster is not a form of the HIV virus. Choice D is incorrect as transmission by IV drug users is not prominent with sterile equipment use. Focusing on the rise in heterosexual transmission is key in teaching young adults about AIDS prevention.
Question 4 of 9
The following would be a symptom the nurse would expect to find during assessment of a patient with macular degeneration, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Loss of peripheral vision. Macular degeneration affects the central vision, specifically the macula, which is responsible for central vision and sharp detail. Loss of peripheral vision is not a typical symptom of macular degeneration. The macula is located in the center of the retina, so symptoms would relate to central vision impairments such as decreased ability to distinguish colors, loss of central vision, and loss of near vision. Peripheral vision is not primarily affected by macular degeneration, hence it is not an expected symptom.
Question 5 of 9
A male client who is HIV positive is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. His live-in partner has accompanied him. During the history interview, the nurse is aware of feeling a negative attitude about the client’s lifestyle, what action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Discuss the negative feelings with the client. This is the most appropriate action as it allows the nurse to address and manage their own biases and attitudes towards the client in a professional and constructive manner. By acknowledging and discussing these feelings with the client, the nurse can work towards providing non-judgmental care and fostering a therapeutic relationship. A: Sharing these feelings with the client is not appropriate as it can harm the nurse-client relationship and potentially lead to discrimination. C: Developing a written interview form is not addressing the immediate issue of the nurse's negative attitude towards the client. D: Avoiding eye contact with the client is unprofessional and does not address the underlying issue of the nurse's negative feelings.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following would pose a threat to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The client wears a watch and wedding band. This is because metal objects such as watches and jewelry can be hazardous during an MRI scan due to the strong magnetic field, leading to potential movement or heating of the metal objects, causing harm to the client. A: The client lies still - This is important for obtaining clear images during an MRI scan and does not pose a threat to the client. C: The client asks questions - Asking questions during an MRI scan does not pose a direct threat to the client's safety. D: The client hears thumping sounds - Thumping sounds are a normal part of the MRI scan and do not pose a threat to the client's safety.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has hand-foot syndrome related to his sickle cell anemia. What findings does the nurse expect to see as the patient is assessed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Purplish discoloration of hands and feet. Hand-foot syndrome in sickle cell anemia is characterized by pain, swelling, and purplish discoloration of the hands and feet due to vaso-occlusive crisis. Unequal growth of fingers and toes (A), webbing between fingers and toes (C), and deformities of wrists and ankles (D) are not typical findings associated with hand-foot syndrome in sickle cell anemia.
Question 8 of 9
A client with advanced breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which adverse reaction immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vision changes. This is crucial to report immediately because tamoxifen can cause serious eye problems such as retinopathy. Vision changes could indicate a potentially serious adverse reaction that requires prompt medical attention to prevent permanent damage. Headache, hearing loss, and anorexia are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and are less urgent in nature. Reporting vision changes promptly can help prevent irreversible harm and ensure timely intervention.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash and suffers a right femur fracture. The leg is stabilized in a full leg cast. Otherwise, the patient has no other major injuries, is in good health, and reports only moderate discomfort. Which is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis the nurse will include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acute pain. This is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis because the patient has a right femur fracture and reports moderate discomfort. The priority is to address the acute pain associated with the fracture. Posttrauma syndrome (A) typically involves a broader range of emotional and psychological responses beyond just moderate discomfort. Constipation (B) is not the priority in this case, as it is not directly related to the patient's current condition. Anxiety (D) may be present but addressing the acute pain takes precedence in this situation to ensure the patient's comfort and well-being.