ATI RN
Common Cardiovascular Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which neurotransmitter alterations are most likely to contribute to the development of schizophrenia? (Select the one tha does not apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA). In schizophrenia, there is evidence of dysregulation in dopamine transmission, specifically increased dopamine activity. GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, is not directly implicated in the development of schizophrenia, unlike dopamine. Acetylcholine has also been implicated in schizophrenia, but to a lesser extent compared to dopamine. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is a hormone, not a neurotransmitter, and its alterations do not directly contribute to schizophrenia development.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse knows that which diuretic is most frequently combined with an antihypertensive drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrochlorothiazide. It is most frequently combined with antihypertensive drugs due to its proven efficacy and safety profile in managing hypertension. It works by decreasing fluid volume in the body, leading to reduced blood pressure. Chlorthalidone and bendroflumethiazide are also thiazide diuretics, but hydrochlorothiazide is more commonly used in combination therapy. Potassium-sparing diuretics are typically not the first choice for combination with antihypertensive drugs, as they are often reserved for specific cases where potassium levels need to be preserved.
Question 3 of 5
A drug causes muscarinic receptor blockade. The nurse will assess the patient for
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: dry mouth. Muscarinic receptor blockade inhibits parasympathetic nervous system activity, leading to decreased secretion of saliva. This causes dry mouth. Gynecomastia (choice B) is unrelated to muscarinic receptor blockade. Pseudoparkinsonism (choice C) is associated with dopamine receptor blockade, not muscarinic receptors. Orthostatic hypotension (choice D) is more commonly seen with alpha-adrenergic receptor blockade.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse explains to a patient with a mental health disorder that which part of the brain is responsible for fine motor coordination?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebellum. The cerebellum is responsible for fine motor coordination as it coordinates muscle movements, balance, and posture. It receives input from sensory systems and integrates this information to regulate motor movements accurately. The medulla (A) controls vital functions like breathing and heart rate. The thalamus (B) acts as a relay station for sensory information. The temporal lobe (D) is mainly involved in auditory processing and memory. Therefore, the cerebellum is the most appropriate choice for fine motor coordination due to its specific functions in motor control.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing a patient who has been admitted to the emergency department for a possible opioid overdose. Which assessment finding is characteristic of an opioid drug overdose?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiration rate of 6 breaths/minute. Opioid overdose can cause respiratory depression, leading to a dangerously low respiration rate. This is a hallmark sign of opioid toxicity as opioids depress the central nervous system, including the respiratory center. Dilated pupils (A) are more characteristic of stimulant overdose. Restlessness (B) is not a typical symptom of opioid overdose, as opioids usually cause sedation. While opioids can lower heart rate (D), it is not as specific or as life-threatening as severe respiratory depression.