Which most accurately describes a patient-centered medical home?

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Behavioral Health Nurse Certification Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which most accurately describes a patient-centered medical home?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A patient-centered medical home is a model of healthcare delivery where all levels of mental and physical care are addressed by a team that coordinates with the broader health system. This approach emphasizes patient engagement, care coordination, and proactive management of health. Choice B is incorrect because it describes a more comprehensive healthcare system rather than specifically focusing on a patient-centered medical home. Choice C is incorrect because psychiatric services in the home do not encompass the full scope of care provided in a patient-centered medical home. Choice D is incorrect because it describes a multidisciplinary team working with patients in various settings, which is not exclusive to the patient-centered medical home model.

Question 2 of 5

A staff nurse reports an observation of a coworker injecting themselves with a syringe in the bathroom. The coworker admits to stealing narcotics from the medication room. The staff nurse should take which of the following courses of action?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Reporting the incident to the appropriate person in the chain of command is necessary to ensure patient safety and uphold professional ethics. 2. The coworker's actions pose a serious risk to patient care and safety, and immediate action is required. 3. Reporting to the supervisor allows for proper investigation, intervention, and support for the coworker. 4. Confidentiality and professionalism are maintained by following the appropriate reporting channels. Summary: A: Agreeing not to report the incident in exchange for the coworker self-reporting is not appropriate as it compromises patient safety and enables unethical behavior. C: Reporting to other RNs on the shift may not ensure proper action and escalation of the issue to the appropriate authority. D: Delaying reporting in exchange for the coworker seeking treatment does not address the immediate risk posed by their actions.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is providing care to an older adult client. Which of the following screening tools should the nurse use to gather data for the client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9). This tool is specifically designed to screen for depression in older adults. The PHQ-9 is validated and widely used in clinical settings to assess depressive symptoms. It is essential to use a screening tool tailored to the client's age group to ensure accurate results. The other choices are incorrect because: A: The Gerontological Personality Disorder Scale (GPS) is not a standard screening tool for older adults and focuses on personality disorders, not depression. C: Denver II Developmental Screening is used to assess developmental milestones in children, not appropriate for older adults. D: The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5) is a diagnostic manual used by mental health professionals to classify mental disorders, not a screening tool for gathering data on depressive symptoms in older adults.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has been brought to the emergency department and is experiencing acute fentanyl toxicity. The nurse should expect to observe which of the following adverse effects in this client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pupillary dilation. In acute fentanyl toxicity, the opioid can cause miosis (pupillary constriction) initially, followed by pupillary dilation as a sign of overdose. This occurs due to the impact of opioids on the autonomic nervous system. Elevated heart rate (choice A) and hypertension (choice B) are not typical adverse effects of fentanyl toxicity; instead, bradycardia and hypotension are more common. Tachypnea (choice C) is also unlikely as opioids tend to cause respiratory depression rather than increased respiratory rate. Pupillary dilation (choice D) is the most indicative sign of acute fentanyl toxicity and should alert the nurse to the seriousness of the situation.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is caring for an adolescent who is experiencing recurring manifestations of influenza. Which of the following phases of Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) explains the possible cause for the adolescent's manifestations?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The correct answer is C: Exhaustion Phase. 2. In the Exhaustion Phase of GAS, prolonged stress depletes the body's resources, leading to increased vulnerability to illnesses like influenza. 3. Alarm Phase is the initial response to stress, not necessarily related to recurring manifestations of illness. 4. Adaptive Phase is when the body tries to adapt to stress, not directly linked to illness manifestations. 5. Resistance Phase involves coping mechanisms to maintain homeostasis, not explaining recurring illness manifestations.

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