ATI RN
Fundamentals of Nursing Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which method of data collection will the nurse use to establish a patient’s database?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because performing a physical examination is the method nurses use to establish a patient's database. This involves directly assessing the patient's physical condition, gathering data on their health status, and identifying any abnormalities or concerns. Reviewing literature (A) is important but not a direct method of collecting patient data. Checking orders for tests (B) is part of data collection but not the initial step. Ordering medications (D) is a treatment action, not data collection.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse should plan to teach the client with pancytopenia caused by a chemotherapy to;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B - Avoid traumatic injuries and exposure to any infection. For a client with pancytopenia caused by chemotherapy, their immune system is compromised, making them more susceptible to infections and bleeding. By avoiding traumatic injuries and exposure to infections, the client can reduce the risk of complications. Option A is incorrect because aggressive mouth care may further damage the already compromised oral mucosa. Option C is incorrect because excessive fluid intake may not be necessary and could worsen electrolyte imbalances. Option D is incorrect because muscle cramps and tingling sensations are not directly related to the main concern of infection and bleeding in pancytopenia.
Question 3 of 9
If a Wall unit is used, What should be the suctioning pressure required by James?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The optimal suctioning pressure for adults is usually between 80-120 mmHg. Step 2: Choice C falls within this recommended range (95-110 mmHg). Step 3: Higher pressures (like in choices B and D) can cause tissue damage. Step 4: Lower pressures (like in choice A) may not effectively remove secretions. Summary: Choice C (95-110 mmHg) is correct as it falls within the safe and effective suctioning pressure range for adults, while the other choices are either too high or too low, risking harm or inefficiency.
Question 4 of 9
Rodolfo, an 85 year old, is admitted for comtinuous cramping pain as the result of intermittent claudication. When conducting an initial physical assessment, the nurse is unable to palpate the pedal pulses. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to obtain a Doppler and recheck the pedal pulses. This is the correct choice because it allows the nurse to further assess the circulation in the lower extremities. By using a Doppler, the nurse can accurately detect the presence or absence of pedal pulses, which is crucial in evaluating the severity of the patient's condition. This step provides objective data that can guide the next course of action. Choice A is incorrect because emergency surgery should not be anticipated without further assessment. Choice B is incorrect as assessing apical and radial pulses is not relevant in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the foot of the bed and applying warm compress may not address the underlying circulation issue.
Question 5 of 9
Why must a nurse measure the intake and output and recommend a daily fluid intake of approximately 3000 to 4000 mL for a client with pyelonephritis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: Measuring intake and output and recommending increased fluid intake for a client with pyelonephritis is crucial to help flush out infectious microorganisms from the urinary tract. By increasing fluid intake, the client will urinate more frequently, aiding in the removal of bacteria causing the infection. This helps in reducing the bacterial load in the urinary tract and promoting faster recovery. Monitoring intake and output also helps ensure the client is adequately hydrated. Summary of Other Choices: A: Monitoring intake and output is more about assessing hydration status and kidney function rather than the response to therapy. C: Intake and output measurement does not directly determine the location of discomfort in pyelonephritis. D: Monitoring intake and output is not primarily for detecting changes but for ensuring proper fluid balance and aiding in infection clearance.
Question 6 of 9
Toni’s disease process involves a sacral plexus. Assessment should include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Involvement of the sacral plexus can affect bladder control, leading to bladder problems. It can also impact bowel function, requiring bowel management. Additionally, the sacral plexus plays a role in sexual function, so assessment should include sexual activity. Therefore, all options are relevant when assessing a disease process involving the sacral plexus. Other choices are incorrect as they do not cover the comprehensive assessment needed for this specific condition.
Question 7 of 9
A patient asks how to avoid lung cancer. The following are risk factors, except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Crowded living conditions do not directly increase the risk of lung cancer. Step 2: Passive smoke (choice A) and air pollution (choice C) contain carcinogens linked to lung cancer. Step 3: Diet low in fruits and vegetables (choice D) may lead to poor immune function, potentially impacting cancer risk. Step 4: In summary, crowded living conditions do not contribute to lung cancer risk compared to the other choices.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with bronchogenic carcinoma. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by a tumor or secretions. This takes highest priority as compromised airway can lead to respiratory distress and potential respiratory failure. Maintaining clear airways is essential for oxygenation and ventilation. Choices A, C, and D are important but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to compromised airway. Disturbed body image, anxiety, and imbalanced nutrition can be addressed once the airway clearance is stabilized.
Question 9 of 9
A client with advanced liver cancer is scheduled for chemotherapy. As part of the chemotherapy regimen, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil, 5 FU [Fluoroplex]). Fluorouracil is commonly used in chemotherapy for liver cancer to inhibit cancer cell growth. It is a pyrimidine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis. Fluoxymesterone (A) is an androgen used in hormone replacement therapy, not in liver cancer treatment. Tamoxifen (C) is an antiestrogen used in breast cancer treatment, not liver cancer. Megestrol (D) is a progestin used in hormone therapy for breast cancer and endometrial cancer, not liver cancer. Therefore, the correct choice is B as it directly targets cancer cell growth in liver cancer treatment.