ATI RN
Fundamentals of Nursing Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which method of data collection will the nurse use to establish a patient’s database?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Performing a physical examination. This method allows the nurse to gather comprehensive data about the patient's health status, including vital signs, physical appearance, and potential health issues. It provides valuable information for developing an individualized care plan. Reviewing literature (A) is important but not for establishing a patient's database. Checking orders (B) and ordering medications (D) are part of the treatment process and do not directly contribute to establishing the initial patient database.
Question 2 of 9
What is the nurse’s primary legal responsibility when implementing nursing interventions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ensure client safety. This is the nurse's primary legal responsibility as it aligns with the ethical principle of beneficence, prioritizing the well-being and safety of the client. Ensuring client safety is essential to prevent harm and promote positive health outcomes. Following physician orders precisely (B) is important but not the primary legal responsibility of the nurse. Documenting care comprehensively (C) is crucial for accountability and continuity of care but is not the primary legal responsibility. Providing client-centered education (D) is essential for empowering clients but is not the primary legal responsibility in terms of legal accountability and duty of care.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is using a systematic approach to the collection of assessment data. The nurse uses an assessment guide that uses a hierarchy of five life requirements universal to all persons. What model for organizing the assessment data is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Human Needs (Maslow) model. The nurse is using a systematic approach based on Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, which includes physiological, safety, love/belonging, esteem, and self-actualization needs. This model organizes assessment data by prioritizing these universal life requirements. Incorrect choices: B: Functional Health Patterns model - This model focuses on 11 functional health patterns, not the hierarchy of universal life requirements. C: Human Response Patterns model - This model focuses on the individual's response to stressors, not prioritizing universal life requirements. D: Body System model - This model focuses on assessing specific body systems, not the holistic approach of addressing all life requirements.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is hemorrhaging from multiple trauma sites. The nurse expects that compensatory mechanisms associated with hypovolemia would cause all of the following symptoms except:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. In hypovolemia, the body compensates by increasing heart rate (B: Tachycardia) to maintain perfusion, decreasing urine output (C: Oliguria) to conserve fluid, and increasing respiratory rate (D: Tachypnea) to improve oxygenation. Hypertension is not a typical compensatory response to hypovolemia; instead, blood pressure tends to decrease due to reduced circulating volume. Therefore, hypertension is the symptom that would not be expected in a patient with hypovolemic shock.
Question 5 of 9
During thoracentesis, which of the following nursing intervention will be most crucial?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain strict aseptic technique. This is crucial during thoracentesis to prevent infection. Step 1: Before the procedure, sterile equipment and supplies must be used. Step 2: Proper hand hygiene is essential to reduce the risk of introducing pathogens. Step 3: During the procedure, maintaining a sterile field helps minimize the risk of contamination. Step 4: After the procedure, ensuring proper disposal of all used supplies prevents the spread of infection. Summary: A: Placing the patient in a quiet and cool room may be comforting but is not directly related to the safety of the procedure. C: Advising the patient to sit still is important for accurate needle insertion but does not address infection prevention. D: Applying pressure over the puncture site is important but does not prevent infection if aseptic technique is not maintained.
Question 6 of 9
In giving health instructions, the nurse should infrom the client about the risk fsctors associated with coronary artery disease. Which of the following controllable risk factors is closely linked to the development of MI?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: High cholesterol levels contribute to the buildup of plaque in arteries, leading to atherosclerosis and increasing the risk of coronary artery disease. Step 2: Atherosclerosis can result in a blockage of blood flow to the heart, causing a myocardial infarction (MI). Step 3: Age is a risk factor for CAD but not directly linked to MI development. Step 4: Medication usage may impact risk factors but is not a direct cause of MI. Step 5: Gender can influence risk but is not the primary factor in MI development.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures. In chronic hyperparathyroidism, there is excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased bone resorption and calcium release from bones, causing bone demineralization and weakening. This puts the client at risk for pathologic fractures. Choice B is incorrect because exhaustion is not a direct consequence of chronic hyperparathyroidism. Choice C is incorrect as edema and dry skin are not typical manifestations of hyperparathyroidism. Choice D is incorrect because tetany is more commonly associated with hypocalcemia, which is not a typical finding in hyperparathyroidism.
Question 8 of 9
Which type of neuron transmits impulses from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Efferent. Efferent neurons transmit signals from the central nervous system to muscles and glands, controlling movement and secretion. Afferent neurons carry signals from sensory receptors to the central nervous system, not towards muscles or glands. "Affective" relates to emotions, not neural function. "Effective" does not describe the direction of signal transmission in the nervous system. Therefore, B is the correct choice.
Question 9 of 9
The physician prescribes didanosone (ddl [Videx]), 200mg PO every 12 hours, for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is intolerant to zidovudine (azidothymidine ,AZT [Retrovir]). Which condition in the client’s history warrants cautious of this drug?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peripheral neuropathy. Didanosine (ddl) can cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, which can exacerbate existing neuropathy. The client's history of peripheral neuropathy warrants caution with this drug to prevent further nerve damage. Incorrect choices: B: Hypertension - Didanosine is not contraindicated in hypertension. C: Diabetes mellitus - While monitoring blood sugar levels is important, didanosine does not directly affect diabetes. D: Asthma - Didanosine does not have a significant impact on asthma. In summary, the client's pre-existing peripheral neuropathy makes it important to exercise caution with didanosine to avoid worsening this condition.