ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which medication should be given to treat anemia in clients with renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Iron, folic acid, and B12) Rationale: 1. Iron: Renal failure patients often have anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production. 2. Folic acid and B12: Important for red blood cell production and maturation. 3. Corrects underlying causes of anemia in renal failure patients. Summary: B: Increasing protein doesn't directly address anemia in renal failure. C: Vitamin D and calcium are not primary treatments for anemia in renal failure. D: Calcium and folic acid alone do not address the specific deficiencies seen in renal failure anemia.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with hypertension about dietary modifications. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates proper understanding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: Limiting alcohol intake reduces blood pressure. Reducing sodium intake also helps manage hypertension. Alcohol can increase blood pressure, while sodium can lead to fluid retention. The patient's statement shows understanding of the importance of both factors in managing hypertension. Other Choices: A: Increasing sodium intake worsens fluid retention and hypertension. C: Processed foods are often high in sodium and unhealthy fats, worsening hypertension. D: Reducing exercise can lead to weight gain and increased blood pressure, contrary to managing hypertension.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes who is experiencing hypoglycemia. The nurse should prioritize which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide a source of fast-acting carbohydrate. In hypoglycemia, the priority is to raise blood glucose levels quickly to prevent complications like seizures or loss of consciousness. Fast-acting carbs like juice or glucose tablets are the first-line treatment. Administering insulin (choice A) would lower blood sugar further. Administering an oral hypoglycemic agent (choice C) takes time to work and is not suitable for emergencies. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is important but not the priority in this situation.
Question 4 of 9
Which serotonin antagonist can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ondansetron (Zofran). Ondansetron is a selective serotonin receptor antagonist that effectively targets the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone to relieve nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. A: Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and primarily used for gastrointestinal motility disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. C: Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with sedative properties, primarily used for anxiety and itching, not specifically for nausea relief. D: Prochlorperazine is a dopamine receptor antagonist primarily used for treating psychotic disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. In summary, ondansetron is the correct choice as it targets serotonin receptors specifically for relieving nausea and vomiting, whereas the other options focus on different mechanisms of action.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor the patient for signs of which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial as warfarin increases the risk of bleeding events. Signs of bleeding may include easy bruising, nosebleeds, blood in urine or stool. Hypertension (B), hyperglycemia (C), and hypokalemia (D) are not direct effects of warfarin. Monitoring for these conditions may be important for other medications or conditions, but they are not the primary concern when a patient is prescribed warfarin.
Question 6 of 9
What is the primary goal for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes is to monitor their blood glucose levels (Answer B). This is essential to understand how their body responds to different foods, activities, and medications. Monitoring blood glucose levels helps in determining the effectiveness of the treatment plan and making necessary adjustments. Teaching the client how to manage their blood glucose levels (Answer A) is important, but monitoring comes first. Monitoring urine output (Answer C) is not as relevant for diabetes management. Administering insulin (Answer D) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary goal initially.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is conducting an eye clinic at the day care centre. When examining a 2-year-old child, if"lazy eye" is suspected, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because testing for strabismus by performing the corneal light reflex test is crucial in diagnosing "lazy eye" or amblyopia in children. Strabismus is a condition where the eyes are misaligned, leading to poor vision in one eye. By performing the corneal light reflex test, the nurse can assess if the child's eyes are aligned or if there is deviation, which could indicate lazy eye. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically address the assessment of strabismus, which is the key indicator for lazy eye in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
A mother brings her child in to the clinic for scalp and hair examination. She says that the child has developed irregularly shaped patches on her head with broken-off, stublike hair, and she is worried that this could be some form of premature baldness. She tells the nurse that the child's hair is always kept very short. The nurse reassures her by telling her that it is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: trichotillomania, which may be caused by her child habitually twirling her hair in an absent-minded way. Trichotillomania is a psychological disorder where individuals have an irresistible urge to pull out their hair. In this case, the broken-off, stublike hair and irregularly shaped patches on the child's head are indicative of hair pulling rather than a medical condition like folliculitis (choice A), traumatic alopecia (choice B), or tinea capitis (choice C). The child's hair being kept very short does not align with the characteristic of these conditions, making trichotillomania the most likely explanation.
Question 9 of 9
A patient tells the nurse that she has been experiencing abdominal pain for the past week. Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates active listening and empathy by directly addressing the patient's concern. By asking the patient to point to where it hurts, the nurse can gather specific information to assess the location and severity of the pain. This helps in determining potential causes and appropriate interventions. Choice B is incorrect as it delays addressing the patient's immediate concern. Choice C focuses on dietary history, which may not be relevant to the current pain complaint. Choice D is unrelated to the current issue and does not address the patient's pain directly.