ATI RN
Safety Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which medication is used to treat acute migraine attacks by constricting blood vessels in the brain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sumatriptan. Sumatriptan is a triptan medication that works by constricting blood vessels in the brain, reducing inflammation and pain associated with migraines. It specifically targets the serotonin receptors, which helps alleviate migraine symptoms. Aspirin (choice B) and Ibuprofen (choice D) are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs that do not directly target blood vessels in the brain like Sumatriptan. Propranolol (choice C) is a beta-blocker used for migraine prevention, not for treating acute attacks by constricting blood vessels.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following medications is a corticosteroid commonly used to reduce inflammation in conditions such as asthma and rheumatoid arthritis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prednisone. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system, making it effective in treating conditions like asthma and rheumatoid arthritis. Lorazepam, Omeprazole, and Diazepam are not corticosteroids and do not have anti-inflammatory properties. Lorazepam and Diazepam are benzodiazepines used for anxiety and seizures, while Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used for reducing stomach acid.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following medications is used to treat arrhythmias by inhibiting potassium channels?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amiodarone is the correct answer as it is a potent antiarrhythmic medication that works by inhibiting potassium channels, prolonging action potential duration. This helps in controlling various types of arrhythmias effectively. Lidocaine (A) works by blocking sodium channels, not potassium channels. Atenolol (C) is a beta-blocker that affects adrenergic receptors, not potassium channels. Verapamil (D) is a calcium channel blocker, which does not target potassium channels. Therefore, B is the correct choice for treating arrhythmias by inhibiting potassium channels.
Question 4 of 5
A 55-year-old male with chronic hypertension is prescribed valsartan. Valsartan works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking the action of angiotensin II at its receptor. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that works by binding to angiotensin II receptors, preventing angiotensin II from exerting its vasoconstrictive and aldosterone-stimulating effects. By blocking angiotensin II, valsartan helps dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because valsartan does not inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II (choice B), inhibit aldosterone release (choice C), or directly increase sodium excretion in the kidneys (choice D).
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is a common side effect of NSAIDs (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastrointestinal bleeding. NSAIDs can irritate the lining of the stomach and intestines, leading to ulcers or bleeding. This is a well-documented and common side effect of NSAIDs due to their mechanism of action. Hypertension (A), hypoglycemia (C), and weight gain (D) are not typically associated with NSAIDs. Hypertension is more commonly linked to other types of medications, hypoglycemia is not a known side effect of NSAIDs, and weight gain is not a common side effect either.