ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drug Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which medical diagnosis and treatment should a nurse anticipate when planning care for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications like Thorazine. The treatment involves discontinuing the causative agent (Thorazine) and administering dantrolene to manage muscle rigidity and hyperthermia. Increasing Thorazine dosage (B) would worsen NMS symptoms. Treating dystonia with trihexyphenidyl (C) or bromocriptine (D) is not appropriate for NMS.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is administering a beta blocker to a patient. Which is the most important assessment to perform before administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apical pulse. Before administering a beta blocker, it is crucial to assess the patient's apical pulse to monitor for potential bradycardia, a common side effect of beta blockers. This assessment helps determine if the patient's heart rate is within the safe range for administering the medication. Monitoring urine output (A) is important for assessing renal function but not specifically related to beta blocker administration. Potassium level (C) and serum level of medication (D) are also important assessments, but the most critical assessment before giving a beta blocker is to evaluate the patient's heart rate to prevent adverse effects.
Question 3 of 5
A patient begins therapy with a phenothiazine medication. What teaching should the nurse provide related to the drug’s strong dopaminergic effect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report muscle stiffness. Phenothiazines can cause extrapyramidal side effects like muscle stiffness due to their strong dopaminergic effect. Teaching the patient to report muscle stiffness is crucial to monitor for and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the dopaminergic effect of the medication and do not address the specific side effect of muscle stiffness.
Question 4 of 5
Which neurotransmitter is located only in the brain, particularly in the raphe nuclei of the brainstem, and is implicated in depression?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serotonin. Serotonin is located predominantly in the brain, specifically in the raphe nuclei of the brainstem. It is known to play a crucial role in regulating mood and emotions. Serotonin imbalance is strongly linked to depression. Norepinephrine, dopamine, and acetylcholine are neurotransmitters found both in the brain and peripheral nervous system. While they also play roles in mood regulation, they are not exclusively located in the brainstem or specifically implicated in depression like serotonin.
Question 5 of 5
The drug nalbuphine (Nubain) is an agonist-antagonist (partial agonist). The nurse understands that which is a characteristic of partial agonists?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because partial agonists like nalbuphine have a lower dependency potential than full agonists. This is because partial agonists have a ceiling effect, meaning they reach a maximum level of activity regardless of the dose. This makes them less likely to cause dependence or tolerance compared to full agonists like morphine. Choices A and C are incorrect because partial agonists do not typically have antiinflammatory effects or higher potency than agonists. Choice B is incorrect because partial agonists are not given to reverse the effects of opiates; rather, they may be used for pain management in certain situations.