ATI RN
Pediatric Research Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which manifestation suggests that an infant is developing necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bloody diarrhea is a key sign of NEC, indicating intestinal injury.
Question 2 of 5
A 5-year old boy presents with afebrile generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting for 5 minutes. Previously he was healthy and had no such problem. On examination there is no abnormality. Your plan of management should be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a first-time generalized seizure, an immediate EEG and starting anticonvulsant therapy is prudent to prevent recurrence, especially if the EEG shows epileptiform activity.
Question 3 of 5
An adolescent girl tells the nurse that she is very suicidal. The nurse asks her whether she has a specific plan. Asking this should be considered:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Asking an adolescent girl who expresses suicidal thoughts whether she has a specific plan is an appropriate part of the assessment. This question helps the nurse determine the level of risk and urgency of the situation. Knowing whether there is a specific plan in place can guide the nurse in determining the appropriate intervention and level of care needed to ensure the safety and well-being of the adolescent. It is crucial to assess for the presence of a specific plan as it can indicate a higher risk of imminent harm.
Question 4 of 5
the best prophylactic treatment to prevent further rheumatic fever attack:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best prophylactic treatment to prevent further rheumatic fever attacks is penicillin. Penicillin is recommended for long-term secondary prophylaxis to prevent the recurrence of acute rheumatic fever and reduce the risk of rheumatic heart disease. It helps to eradicate streptococcal infections, which are the underlying cause of rheumatic fever. Prednisone, aspirin, and paracetamol are not used for primary or secondary prevention of rheumatic fever.
Question 5 of 5
A healthy 20-day-old male examination reveals a palpable liver margin below the right costal margin; lab findings: white blood count, 18700/mm3; hemoglobin, 8.8 g/dl; blast cells, 10%; the BEST approach for the management is consistent with acute myeloproliferative disorder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intensive chemotherapy is the standard approach for managing acute myeloproliferative disorders.