ATI RN
Maternal Newborn Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which lifestyle factor is associated with an increased risk of developing breast cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Question 2 of 9
What history would lead you to suspect an ectopic pregnancy in a client at 8 weeks' gestation presenting with abdominal pain and bleeding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A history of previous pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) treatment would lead to suspicion of an ectopic pregnancy in a client presenting with abdominal pain and bleeding at 8 weeks' gestation. PID can cause scarring and damage to the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of an ectopic pregnancy where the fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. Symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy can include abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of shock, making it important to consider this possibility in a client with a history of PID.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client in labor with meconium-stained amniotic fluid. What is the priority action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Meconium-stained amniotic fluid poses a risk of aspiration; preparation for neonatal resuscitation is critical.
Question 4 of 9
What emergency contraception has the best efficacy for prevention of pregnancy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Copper intrauterine devices (IUDs) have the best efficacy for prevention of pregnancy among emergency contraception options. Copper IUDs are over 99% effective when used as emergency contraception, making them more reliable than other methods like Plan B, Yuzpe, or progesterone-only EC. This high efficacy is due to the mechanism of action of copper IUDs, which prevent fertilization and implantation of the fertilized egg. Additionally, once inserted, a copper IUD can continue to provide ongoing contraception for up to 10 years, making it a long-term contraceptive option as well.
Question 5 of 9
The newborn's mother is concerned about the shape of the baby's head after delivery. She states that the baby looks like a "cone head." What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: "It is molding caused by the pressure during birth and will disappear in a few days."
Question 6 of 9
A client at 34 weeks' gestation reports regular uterine contractions. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing fetal heart rate and contraction pattern is crucial to evaluate for preterm labor.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation is usually characterized by hip flexion posturing and a popliteal angle of less than 90 degrees. The popliteal angle is the angle at the back of the knee joint when the leg is flexed, and a value of less than 90 degrees is commonly seen in preterm newborns due to their muscle tone immaturity. This finding is consistent with the developmental stage of a preterm infant at 32 weeks gestation.
Question 8 of 9
the nurse knows that management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides are for a client with this condition should be aware that which of the following is the optimal pharmacological therapy for pain relief dysmenorrhea? Management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides care for a client with this condition should be aware that the optimal pharmacologic therapy for pain relief is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are considered the optimal pharmacological therapy for pain relief in primary dysmenorrhea. They work by reducing the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for causing uterine contractions and pain. NSAIDs such as ibuprofen, naproxen, and mefenamic acid are commonly used to alleviate menstrual cramps. Acetaminophen may also provide pain relief, but it does not have the anti-inflammatory properties of NSAIDs. Oral contraceptives (OCPs) can help regulate menstrual cycles and reduce pain in some individuals, but they are not the first line of treatment for immediate pain relief in primary dysmenorrhea. Aspirin, while an NSAID, is not typically recommended for menstrual pain relief due to its potential side effects on blood clotting and gastrointestinal irritation.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is educating a male patient on how a vasectomy works. What is the best explanation for this procedure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A vasectomy involves blocking or cutting the vas deferens to prevent sperm from being ejaculated with semen, making it an effective method of contraception. Choice B is incorrect because the testicles are not removed during a vasectomy, only the vas deferens is altered. Choice C is incorrect because seminal fluid is still produced, but sperm are prevented from entering it. Choice D is incorrect because sperm are not killed, but rather prevented from mixing with semen.