Which laboratory value reported to the nurse by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates the most urgent need for the nurse’s assessment of the patient?

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Question 1 of 9

Which laboratory value reported to the nurse by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates the most urgent need for the nurse’s assessment of the patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Noon blood glucose of 52 mg/dL. This value indicates hypoglycemia, which can lead to serious complications like confusion, seizures, or coma. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial. A: Bedtime glucose of 140 mg/dL is within the normal range. C: Fasting blood glucose of 130 mg/dL is slightly elevated but doesn't require urgent assessment. D: 2-hr postprandial glucose of 220 mg/dL is elevated but not as critical as hypoglycemia.

Question 2 of 9

What is the primary advantage of utilizing a modular nursing model?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary advantage of utilizing a modular nursing model is enhanced teamwork. This is because modular nursing promotes collaboration among healthcare professionals, leading to better coordination of care and improved patient outcomes. It allows for flexibility and efficiency in assigning roles and responsibilities based on individual strengths and expertise. Improved teamwork fosters effective communication, enhances job satisfaction, and ultimately benefits patient care. Patient satisfaction, cost reduction, and communication are important aspects but not the primary advantage of a modular nursing model.

Question 3 of 9

One of the most useful tools to determine reasons for turnover is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Surveys. Surveys are structured tools that allow for systematic collection of feedback from employees, providing quantitative and qualitative data on reasons for turnover. They offer anonymity, encouraging honest responses. Questioning (choice A) may not provide a comprehensive view, as it relies on informal conversations. Employee forums (choice C) may not capture individual perspectives effectively. Telephone calls (choice D) are not scalable for large organizations and lack the anonymity of surveys. In summary, surveys are the most effective tool for gathering in-depth insights into reasons for turnover.

Question 4 of 9

An RN is writing reminders for good documentation for the nurses on her staff. The purpose is to ensure nursing documentation is legally credible. Which of the following is a recommendation she should include in the reminders?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Only use approved abbreviations. Using approved abbreviations in nursing documentation helps ensure clarity, accuracy, and consistency, which are crucial for legal credibility. Abbreviations can lead to misunderstandings or errors if not standardized. Explanation for other choices: A: Using shortcuts in documentation can compromise accuracy and lead to incomplete or unclear information, which could result in legal issues. C: Documentation should be objective, not subjective, to provide an accurate portrayal of the patient's condition and care. Subjective documentation can be challenged legally. D: Documenting after care is provided is important, but documenting in a timely manner is crucial for legal credibility. Delayed documentation can raise questions about the accuracy and reliability of the information.

Question 5 of 9

When a Nurse Manager leaves the facility, and one of the remaining managers is given that assignment in addition to her current load without the open position being filled, this is an example of which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Job enlargement. Job enlargement involves adding more tasks of a similar level of complexity to an existing job role. In this scenario, the manager is given additional responsibilities without a new hire, which expands the scope of their role. This aligns with the concept of job enlargement. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: Proactive management typically involves taking preventive actions to address potential issues before they occur. This situation does not involve proactive measures. C: Time log refers to tracking and recording time spent on various tasks, which is not relevant to the scenario described. D: Prioritizing involves determining the order of importance of tasks. While prioritizing may be necessary in this situation, it is not the best fit for the scenario provided.

Question 6 of 9

An RN is explaining to a student nurse what professionalism in nursing means. Which of the following statements, if made by the student nurse, demonstrates teaching has been successful?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Commitment to others implies putting patients' needs first, being honest, and taking responsibility for one's actions. 2. Being honest and accountable are key components of professionalism in nursing. 3. Accountability ensures that patients receive safe and quality care. 4. Encouraging honesty and accountability among colleagues promotes a culture of safety and trust. Summary: - Choice A is correct as it aligns with the principles of professionalism in nursing. - Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the core aspects of professionalism, such as honesty, accountability, and prioritizing patient care.

Question 7 of 9

The staff nurse delegates AM care for two patients to the UAP (Unlicensed Assistive Person). What principle of delegation is the nurse following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because delegation involves transferring responsibility for a task while retaining accountability for the outcome. The nurse has delegated specific tasks (AM care) to the UAP, which aligns with the principle that only certain tasks can be delegated. Choice A is incorrect because delegation does not require clearly defined superiors, but rather defined tasks. Choice B is incorrect as delegation can also occur between peers or team members. Choice C is incorrect as delegation is not exclusive to healthcare professionals but is a common practice in various industries.

Question 8 of 9

An RN knows that sometimes, when working through an ethical dilemma, the decision makers are unable to arrive at a mutually agreed upon decision. Which of the following is a reason why an agreement cannot be reached?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because when an ethical dilemma involves two or more equally unpleasant choices, it can be challenging for decision-makers to come to a consensus. This is known as a moral dilemma, where there is no clear right or wrong option, making it difficult to reach an agreement. In such cases, individuals may have strong convictions about different courses of action, leading to a deadlock in decision-making. Incorrect choices: A: One or more of the parties may be able to reconcile their values - This choice suggests that parties can find common ground by adjusting their values, which is not always possible in complex ethical dilemmas. B: The patient’s point of view is recognized as valuable - While recognizing the patient's perspective is important, it may not directly address the core reason why an agreement cannot be reached. D: The institution is unable to honor the patient’s request - This choice focuses on institutional constraints rather than the fundamental nature of ethical dilemmas and decision-making processes.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The elevated blood pressure of 144/82 mm Hg indicates dehydration due to vomiting and diarrhea, leading to hypovolemia. This is a compensatory mechanism by the body to maintain perfusion. Option B, urine specific gravity of 1.03, indicates concentrated urine and dehydration, but not as specific as elevated blood pressure. Option C, neck vein distention, is more indicative of heart failure or fluid overload rather than dehydration. Option D, urine specific gravity of 1.01, indicates diluted urine and is not consistent with dehydration. Therefore, based on the symptoms and the compensatory mechanism of the body, an elevated blood pressure is the most likely finding in a client with vomiting and diarrhea.

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