ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which laboratory test value is elevated in clients who smoke and can’t be used as a general indicator of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcitonin level. Smoking can elevate serum calcitonin levels due to the effect of nicotine. However, an elevated serum calcitonin level is not a general indicator of cancer. Step 1: Understand that smoking can increase serum calcitonin levels. Step 2: Recognize that elevated serum calcitonin levels are not specific to cancer and can be influenced by other factors. Step 3: Differentiate between a marker that is specific to cancer (such as carcinoembryonic antigen) and one that can be affected by smoking but not necessarily indicative of cancer (serum calcitonin). Thus, while smoking can elevate serum calcitonin levels, it is not a reliable indicator of cancer.
Question 2 of 9
A woman sees her primary care provider because of extreme fatigue for the past 2 months; she difficulty lifting even light objects. Her physician suspects myasthenia gravis. Which of the ff. tests should the nurse anticipate to confirm this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tensilon test. The Tensilon test involves administering edrophonium (Tensilon) to temporarily improve muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis patients, confirming the diagnosis. Other choices are incorrect: A (Mestinon test) is not a standard diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis, B (Pulmonary function studies) are not specific for myasthenia gravis, and C (Quinine tolerance test) is not a relevant test for this condition.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff. statements, if made by a patient with hypertension, indicates to a nurse a need for more teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Statement C indicates a misunderstanding that medication can be stopped when feeling better, which is incorrect. 2. Hypertension is a chronic condition that often requires lifelong medication. 3. This demonstrates a lack of understanding regarding the necessity of long-term management. 4. Statements A, B, and D show knowledge about hypertension's effects, dietary management, and awareness, respectively. Summary: Statement C is incorrect as it suggests stopping medication, while statements A, B, and D show accurate understanding of hypertension.
Question 4 of 9
Aling Iska, a 78-year old client consults with a hemoglobin and hematocrit levels of 11mg/dl and 32 % respectively. These finding indicates:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Answer B is correct because a hemoglobin level of 11mg/dl and hematocrit level of 32% in a 78-year-old client are indicative of anemia. Conducting a thorough nutritional assessment is essential to identify potential causes of anemia such as iron deficiency or vitamin deficiencies. This assessment will help determine appropriate interventions to manage the anemia. Summary: A: Incorrect. These levels are indicative of anemia, not normal findings. C: Incorrect. Advising to repeat the test in three months may delay necessary interventions for the anemia. D: Incorrect. While anemia can be related to bone marrow degeneration, a nutritional assessment is needed to identify the specific cause in this case.
Question 5 of 9
Nurse Dennis provides health promotion to a group of male adults. He is correct when he states that clients with cirrhosis should include which measure to adhere to a home?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: limit daily alcohol intake. This is crucial for clients with cirrhosis as alcohol can exacerbate liver damage. Limiting alcohol intake helps prevent further harm to the liver and promotes overall health. Supplementation with multivitamins (choice A) can be beneficial, but not as essential as avoiding alcohol. Taking sleeping pills (choice B) may worsen liver function and is not recommended. Limiting contact at all times (choice D) is irrelevant to managing cirrhosis.
Question 6 of 9
Miss OB’s malignant tumor in her left breast was discovered to be spreading all over the surrounding and adjacent tissue and not entering the blood stream, it would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignant. A malignant tumor spreading to surrounding tissues indicates invasive growth, characteristic of malignancy. It is aggressive and can invade nearby structures. Non-malignant tumors are localized and do not invade surrounding tissues. Benign tumors are non-invasive and do not spread to other parts of the body. Choice D is incorrect because a tumor spreading to surrounding tissues is indicative of malignancy, not benignity.
Question 7 of 9
A client has been scheduled for a Schilling test. What instruction will the nurse give the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Collect his urine for 12 hours. This instruction is given because the Schilling test involves collecting urine over a specific time period to measure the absorption of vitamin B12. A is incorrect because fasting is not necessary. C is incorrect as enema is not required. D is incorrect as emptying the bladder is not part of the test procedure.
Question 8 of 9
An adult who has gastroenteritis and is on digitalis ha lab values of: K 3.2 mEq/L, Na 136 mEq/L, Ca 8.8 mg/dl, and Cl 98 mEq/L. the nurse puts which of the following on the client’s plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. The lab value of K at 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia. 2. Digitalis can worsen hypokalemia and lead to toxicity. 3. Avoiding foods rich in potassium will prevent further lowering of potassium levels. 4. This intervention helps prevent potential digitalis toxicity in the client. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: A. Stopping digitalis therapy abruptly can lead to rebound effects and worsen the condition. B. Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs are not relevant to the client's current lab values. D. While observing for digitalis toxicity is important, addressing the low potassium level is a more immediate concern in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent infection in patients with AIDS?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Wearing protective gear such as gown, mask, gloves, and goggles when entering the room is crucial to prevent infection in patients with AIDS. This intervention helps to minimize the risk of transmitting pathogens to the patient and vice versa. The protective gear acts as a barrier to prevent the spread of infectious agents. It also protects healthcare workers from exposure to potentially harmful pathogens. Prohibiting visitors who are severely immunodeficient (choice A) may be isolating for the patient and does not directly address preventing infection transmission. Prohibiting visitors with a cough (choice B) is important but does not cover all potential sources of infection. Ensuring protective barrier isolation precautions are in place (choice D) is a general statement and does not specify the practical steps needed to prevent infection transmission effectively.