ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which laboratory test value is elevated in clients who smoke and can’t be used as a general indicator of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcitonin level. Smoking can elevate serum calcitonin levels due to the effect of nicotine. However, an elevated serum calcitonin level is not a general indicator of cancer. Step 1: Understand that smoking can increase serum calcitonin levels. Step 2: Recognize that elevated serum calcitonin levels are not specific to cancer and can be influenced by other factors. Step 3: Differentiate between a marker that is specific to cancer (such as carcinoembryonic antigen) and one that can be affected by smoking but not necessarily indicative of cancer (serum calcitonin). Thus, while smoking can elevate serum calcitonin levels, it is not a reliable indicator of cancer.
Question 2 of 9
The most effective pharmacologic agent for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levodopa. Levodopa is the most effective pharmacologic agent for Parkinson's disease as it is converted to dopamine in the brain, replenishing dopamine levels which are depleted in Parkinson's. Selegiline and Symmetrel provide symptomatic relief but are not as effective as Levodopa. Permax is not commonly used due to its association with serious side effects like heart valve damage.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse needs to administer an IM injection of 2.4 million units of penicillin G. it is supplied in a vial of 5,000,000 units of powder for injection. Instructions state to dilute with 8 mL of sterile water. How manu mL should the nurse draw up?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3.8 mL. To calculate the volume needed, first determine the concentration of the solution after reconstitution: 2.4 million units / 5,000,000 units = 0.48. Next, divide the desired dose by the concentration: 2.4 million units / 0.48 = 5 mL. Since the instructions state to dilute with 8 mL of sterile water, the total volume will be 13 mL. To find the volume of the powder to draw up, subtract the water volume from the total volume: 13 mL - 8 mL = 5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should draw up 5 mL of the reconstituted solution, which is equivalent to 3.8 mL of powder for injection. Incorrect choices: A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not consider the dilution factor of adding sterile water to the powder for injection. Option A is less than the
Question 4 of 9
The nurse should include which of the following in preprocedure teaching for a patient scheduled for carotid angiography?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You may feel a burning sensation when the dye is injected." This is important preprocedure teaching for carotid angiography because it prepares the patient for a common sensation during the procedure, helping to manage their expectations and reduce anxiety. This information is crucial for informed consent. Choice A is incorrect because carotid angiography is usually done under local anesthesia, not general anesthesia. Choice B is incorrect as carotid angiography typically takes about 1-2 hours, not several hours. Choice D is incorrect because all medical procedures, including carotid angiography, carry potential risks and complications, which should be discussed with the patient.
Question 5 of 9
Miss OB’s malignant tumor in her left breast was discovered to be spreading all over the surrounding and adjacent tissue and not entering the blood stream, it would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignant. A malignant tumor spreading to surrounding tissues indicates invasive growth, characteristic of malignancy. It is aggressive and can invade nearby structures. Non-malignant tumors are localized and do not invade surrounding tissues. Benign tumors are non-invasive and do not spread to other parts of the body. Choice D is incorrect because a tumor spreading to surrounding tissues is indicative of malignancy, not benignity.
Question 6 of 9
The physician orders furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV STAT for an acutely fluid-overloaded patient. Why was the IV route likely chosen?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IV is the route of choice for rapid administration. IV route allows for quick onset of action, crucial in acutely fluid-overloaded patients needing immediate diuresis. Option A is incorrect as furosemide can be given orally too. Option C is less relevant in this urgent situation where speed is key. Option D is also incorrect as the side effects are not determined by route of administration.
Question 7 of 9
Mang Simon, a hypertensive male client was prescribed with an exercise program. Which intervention would help Mang Simon in maintaining this program?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Doing it according to his needs and abilities. This option is the most appropriate intervention for Mang Simon to maintain his exercise program. By tailoring the program to his needs and abilities, Mang Simon is more likely to adhere to it and prevent any potential injuries or health risks associated with overexertion. This approach ensures that the exercise routine is realistic and manageable for him, increasing his chances of long-term success. A: Writing down the exercise program may be helpful for organization but does not address the individualization needed for Mang Simon's specific situation. B: Thoroughly explaining the program to his wife, Aling Nena, may provide support but does not directly impact Mang Simon's ability to maintain the program. C: Positive motivation is important, but it alone may not be sufficient to address the practical aspects of adapting the exercise program to Mang Simon's needs and abilities.
Question 8 of 9
A new nurse is completing an assessment on an 80-year-old patient who is alert and oriented. The patient’s daughter is present in the room. Which action by the nurse will require follow-up by the charge nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should primarily communicate with the patient, not just the daughter. The nurse should engage the patient in conversation, address them directly, and ensure their needs and concerns are being addressed. Speaking only to the daughter could neglect the patient's autonomy and lead to potential communication barriers. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they all involve appropriate communication techniques with the patient, such as making eye contact, leaning forward to show attentiveness, and nodding to indicate understanding. These actions demonstrate good communication skills and rapport-building with the patient, which are important in nursing practice.
Question 9 of 9
Minda, a 65-year old female has been admitted with a left hemisphere stroke. Which behavioral change would the nurse expect to find upon assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: error in word choices. In left hemisphere stroke, language and speech centers are usually affected, leading to aphasia. This results in errors in word choices, difficulty expressing thoughts, and understanding language. Impulsivity and unsafe activities (choice A) are more commonly associated with frontal lobe damage. Motor deficits on the right eye (choice B) and left side of the body (choice C) are typical in strokes affecting the motor cortex, which is located in the contralateral hemisphere.