ATI RN
Cardiovascular Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which laboratory data supports a diagnosis of pulmonary embolus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased clotting time and PTT. In pulmonary embolism, clotting factors are consumed, resulting in decreased clotting time and prolonged PTT. Elevated WBC and PO2 (A) are nonspecific. Elevated SGOT and LDH (C) suggest heart or liver issues, not PE. Decreased CPK and BUN (D) are not typically associated with PE.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is given an order to give the client milrinone (Primacor). For what reason might this drug be ordered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: For congestive heart failure. Milrinone is a type of inotropic agent used to treat congestive heart failure by increasing cardiac contractility and improving cardiac output. It is not typically used for hypertension (B), as there are more appropriate medications available. It is also not indicated for cardiac arrhythmias (C) or bradycardia (D), as its primary action is to improve cardiac function in heart failure patients.
Question 3 of 5
Adverse reactions from non-cardio-selective beta blockers include which of the following? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increases heart rate. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers block beta-1 and beta-2 receptors, leading to unopposed alpha receptor activity, which can result in increased heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because beta blockers typically lower blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as beta blockers can cause sinus bradycardia, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because non-cardio-selective beta blockers can exacerbate asthma due to blocking beta-2 receptors, not because they increase heart rate.
Question 4 of 5
The client is taking a calcium channel blocker for an arrhythmia. Calcium channel blockers are used to treat what type of arrhythmia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Atrial flutter. Calcium channel blockers slow down the conduction of electrical impulses in the heart, which can help stabilize the heart rate in atrial arrhythmias like atrial flutter. Ventricular tachycardia (B) is usually treated with antiarrhythmic drugs or electrical cardioversion. Frequent PVCs (C) are commonly managed by beta-blockers. Sinus bradycardia (D) is a condition of slowed heart rate that is typically not treated with calcium channel blockers. In this case, the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers aligns with the treatment goal for atrial flutter, making it the correct choice.
Question 5 of 5
The client has developed neutropenia from a medication. What medication might this be?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neutropenia is a known side effect of captopril, an ACE inhibitor. Captopril can lead to a decrease in white blood cells, including neutrophils. Metoprolol, Lisinopril, and Guanfacine are not associated with causing neutropenia. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker, Lisinopril is another ACE inhibitor, and Guanfacine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. It is crucial to identify captopril as the likely medication causing neutropenia based on its pharmacological profile and known adverse effects.