ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should eat a snack when their blood glucose level is low, typically below 70-100 mg/dL, not when it is high. Eating a snack when the blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL can exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice A is correct as checking blood glucose levels regularly is important in managing diabetes. Choice C is also correct as adherence to prescribed insulin therapy is crucial. Choice D is incorrect as physical activity can help lower blood glucose levels, especially when they are above the target range.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct finding the nurse should report to the provider is decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe. This can indicate a respiratory infection or atelectasis in clients with COPD, requiring further evaluation and intervention. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 91%, although slightly lower than normal, does not necessarily require immediate reporting unless the client's baseline is significantly higher. Choice B, the use of pursed-lip breathing, is actually a beneficial technique for clients with COPD to improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath, so it does not need reporting. Choice C, a productive cough with green sputum, can be common in clients with COPD and may indicate an infection, but it is not as concerning as decreased breath sounds in a specific lung lobe which may signify a more acute issue.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a common finding in clients with ARDS as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. Barrel-shaped chest (Choice A) is associated with conditions like COPD, not ARDS. Bradycardia (Choice B) is unlikely in ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to improve oxygenation. Tracheal deviation (Choice D) is not typically seen in ARDS and is more suggestive of other respiratory conditions.
Question 5 of 9
How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with respiratory distress?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen is crucial in managing a patient with respiratory distress as it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulties. While administering bronchodilators may be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD, in a patient with respiratory distress, ensuring adequate oxygen supply takes precedence. Checking oxygen saturation is important, but the immediate intervention to address respiratory distress is providing supplemental oxygen. Repositioning the patient may be helpful in optimizing ventilation but is not the primary intervention in managing acute respiratory distress.
Question 6 of 9
A client who has a positive stool culture for Clostridium difficile should be placed in which type of room for infection control purposes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is the appropriate infection control measure for C. difficile to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a face shield may be necessary for procedures that generate splashes or sprays, it is not the primary precaution for C. difficile. Negative pressure rooms are typically used for airborne infections, not for C. difficile. Using an alcohol-based hand rub is important for hand hygiene but is not specific to managing C. difficile infection.
Question 7 of 9
What is the correct method to teach a patient about self-administration of insulin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct method to teach a patient about self-administration of insulin is to use a 90-degree angle for injection. This angle ensures proper subcutaneous administration of insulin, which is essential for effective absorption. Injecting into the upper arm (Choice A) is not recommended for insulin administration. While rotating injection sites (Choice B) is important to prevent lipodystrophy, the angle of injection is crucial for proper insulin delivery. Using a 45-degree angle (Choice C) is more suitable for intramuscular injections, not for subcutaneous insulin injections.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.
Question 9 of 9
What is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism. Maintaining adequate oxygenation is crucial in these patients to prevent hypoxemia and support oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering anticoagulants may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators is not indicated for pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.