Which lab result is most indicative of infection in a client with a fever?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased white blood cell count. When a client has an infection, the body's immune response triggers an increase in white blood cells to help fight off the infection. Neutrophils and band cells (choice B) may also increase during infection, but a general increase in white blood cells is a more reliable indicator. ESR (choice C) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and may be elevated in various conditions, not just infection. LDH (choice D) is an enzyme found in many tissues and can be elevated in various conditions, not specifically infection. Therefore, an increased white blood cell count is the most indicative of infection in a client with a fever.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 12. At 18 months, a child should have 12 teeth, which include 8 incisors and 4 molars. This is because children typically start teething around 6 months, with the lower central incisors coming first. By 18 months, they should have all 8 incisors and usually the first set of molars. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical dental development timeline for children. Having only 6, 8, or 16 teeth at 18 months would indicate a delay or abnormality in dental growth.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Culturally competent care involves applying knowledge, skills, attitudes, and personal attributes to provide respectful and effective care. Step 2: Understanding and speaking the patient's mother tongue (Option A) is important but not sufficient for culturally competent care. Step 3: Possessing basic knowledge of the patient's cultural background (Option B) is helpful, but not comprehensive enough to ensure culturally competent care. Step 4: Having knowledge of the significance of social, economic, and cultural contexts (Option C) is crucial but does not encompass the full scope of culturally competent care. Step 5: The correct answer, D, encompasses the holistic approach needed for culturally competent care by emphasizing the application of knowledge, skills, attitudes, and personal attributes to maximize respect and care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiepileptics. This is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a history of seizures as antiepileptic medications help prevent or reduce the frequency of seizures. Monitoring vital signs (B) is important but does not directly address the underlying issue of seizures. Oxygen therapy (C) may be needed during a seizure but does not prevent future episodes. Monitoring ECG (D) may provide information on cardiac function but is not the primary intervention for seizures. Administering antiepileptics is essential for seizure management.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoiding environmental allergens and smoking. Environmental allergens and smoking are common triggers for asthma attacks. Avoiding these triggers can significantly reduce the risk of exacerbations. Over-the-counter medications may provide symptomatic relief but do not address the underlying triggers. Increasing physical activity can be beneficial but may also trigger asthma attacks in some individuals. Limiting fluid intake to reduce mucus production is not a recommended strategy for managing asthma triggers.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer nitroglycerin. In acute pancreatitis, pancreatic inflammation can lead to pancreatic ischemia due to decreased blood flow. Nitroglycerin helps to dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow to the pancreas, reducing ischemia and potentially preventing further damage. Pain relief (choice A) may be necessary but does not address the underlying issue of ischemia. Administering fluids (choices B and C) is important but not the most critical intervention in this case. Administering nitroglycerin is the most crucial because it targets the root cause of pancreatic ischemia in acute pancreatitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver. The liver is responsible for the extensive metabolism of acetaminophen through various pathways, including glucuronidation, sulfation, and oxidation. It converts acetaminophen into less toxic metabolites for elimination. The kidneys (B) primarily filter blood and regulate fluid balance; the lungs (C) are involved in gas exchange; and the pancreas (D) produces digestive enzymes and insulin, not involved in acetaminophen metabolism. Therefore, the liver is the correct choice for this question.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient demonstrates orientation to person (knows their name), place (knows they are at the hospital in Victoria), and time (knows it is February of a new year – 2009). This indicates intact orientation across all three domains. Choice A is incorrect as the patient is unsure of their location and the year. Choice B is incorrect as the patient is confused about the date. Choice C is incorrect as the patient is uncertain about the date and only guesses their location.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because monitoring vital signs and fluid status is crucial in managing chronic heart failure. This intervention helps in assessing the patient's condition, detecting any signs of deterioration, and ensuring appropriate fluid balance. Administering diuretics (A) may be necessary but should be based on the patient's fluid status. Encouraging rest (B) is important, but monitoring vital signs takes precedence. Teaching about dietary changes (D) is essential, but ensuring the patient's immediate stability through monitoring is the priority.