ATI RN
Cardiovascular Physiology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which isoenzyme most quickly reflects that a patient has suffered an acute and recent myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Troponin. Troponin is a cardiac-specific protein released into the bloodstream following myocardial injury, making it the most sensitive and specific marker for detecting acute myocardial infarction. It rapidly rises within 3-6 hours of injury, peaks at 12-48 hours, and remains elevated for up to 14 days. LDH (choice A) and SGOT (choice C) are less specific for cardiac injury, while CK-MM (choice B) is a skeletal muscle enzyme, not specific to the heart. Troponin's kinetics, cardiac specificity, and prolonged elevation make it the best choice for quickly identifying recent myocardial infarction.
Question 2 of 5
Which sign is characteristic of cardiac tamponade?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct sign for cardiac tamponade is Beck's triad, which consists of hypotension, distant heart sounds, and elevated jugular venous pressure. This is due to the compression of the heart by fluid in the pericardial sac. Shortness of breath (A) can be a symptom of many heart conditions, but is not specific to cardiac tamponade. Holosystolic murmur (C) is more indicative of mitral regurgitation. Bounding peripheral pulse (D) is seen in conditions like aortic regurgitation, not cardiac tamponade.
Question 3 of 5
The client is on digoxin has severe digoxin toxicity. What is the nursing priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Give Digibind as an antidote. Digibind is the specific antidote for digoxin toxicity as it binds to digoxin and removes it from the body. This action helps to rapidly reduce the levels of digoxin in the system, counteracting the toxic effects. Checking a potassium level (A) may be important but not the priority when severe toxicity is present. Changing the dosing schedule (C) or giving a potassium supplement (D) will not address the immediate life-threatening effects of severe digoxin toxicity. Digibind is the most appropriate and urgent action to take in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
The client is diabetic and is given a non-cardio-selective beta blocker. What might happen to the blood sugars?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - The blood sugar drops due to impaired production of glucose from glycogen. Rationale: 1. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers inhibit beta-2 receptors in the liver. 2. Beta-2 receptors stimulate glycogenolysis, converting glycogen to glucose. 3. Inhibition of glycogenolysis leads to impaired production of glucose from glycogen. 4. Consequently, blood sugar levels decrease due to reduced availability of glucose. Summary of Other Choices: A: Incorrect. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers inhibit glycogenolysis, leading to decreased breakdown of glycogen and reduced glucose production, resulting in lower blood sugar levels. C: Incorrect. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers do affect blood sugar by impairing glucose production from glycogen. D: Incorrect. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers do not increase cellular uptake of glucose, but rather decrease glucose production from glycogen.
Question 5 of 5
The client is taking a calcium channel blocker for arrhythmias. What class of anti-arrhythmic agent is this?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Class IV. Calcium channel blockers, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are classified as Class IV anti-arrhythmic agents because they primarily act by blocking calcium channels in cardiac cells, leading to decreased conduction through the AV node and slowing of the heart rate. Class IA agents (choice A) work by blocking sodium channels, Class II agents (choice B) are beta-blockers, and Class III agents (choice C) prolong the action potential duration. Therefore, the correct answer is Class IV as calcium channel blockers specifically target calcium channels to treat arrhythmias.