ATI RN
Pediatric Nurse Exam Sample Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which is true of cromolyn?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the medication cromolyn is crucial for managing respiratory conditions in children, such as asthma. The correct answer, option D, "All of the above are true," is accurate because cromolyn functions by preventing both antibody-mediated and non-antibody-mediated mast cell degranulation. This action helps to inhibit the release of inflammatory mediators, thereby reducing bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation in conditions like asthma. Option A is incorrect because cromolyn does not specifically target only antibody-mediated mast cell degranulation; it also affects non-antibody-mediated degranulation. Option B is incorrect as cromolyn does not solely prevent non-antibody-mediated mast cell degranulation. Option C is also incorrect because while cromolyn is not a bronchodilator, it is effective in preventing asthma attacks by reducing inflammation and hypersensitivity in the airways. Educationally, it is essential for pediatric nurses to grasp the mechanism of action of medications like cromolyn to provide safe and effective care to pediatric patients with respiratory conditions. By understanding how cromolyn works, nurses can educate patients and families on its proper use, potential side effects, and the importance of adherence to the prescribed regimen for optimal management of respiratory symptoms in children.
Question 2 of 5
Which is not a common cause of drug-induced anaphylaxis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, it is crucial to understand the common causes of drug-induced anaphylaxis to ensure prompt recognition and appropriate management. In this question, the correct answer is B) Aspirin. Aspirin is not a common cause of drug-induced anaphylaxis in comparison to the other options provided. Penicillin (Option A) is a well-known common cause of drug-induced anaphylaxis. NSAIDs (Option C) like ibuprofen and naproxen are also frequently associated with allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Radiocontrast media (Option D) can trigger allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis, in some individuals, especially those with a history of sensitivity to these substances. Educationally, understanding the varying degrees of allergenic potential among different drugs is essential in pediatric nursing practice. Nurses need to be able to differentiate between common and uncommon triggers of anaphylaxis to provide safe and effective care to pediatric patients. Additionally, knowledge of potential allergens helps in preventing adverse reactions and in educating patients and their families about medication safety.
Question 3 of 5
Ahmed is a 7-year-old boy with recent history of migratory polyarthritis, newly heard apical pansystolic murmur, arthralgia, positive acute phase reactants, and ASOT of 500 units. Regarding diagnosis of rheumatic fever the boy is considered to have
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Two major manifestations and one minor manifestation. In diagnosing rheumatic fever, the Jones criteria are used. Major manifestations include carditis (e.g., pansystolic murmur), polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor manifestations include arthralgia, fever, elevated acute phase reactants (like ASOT), prolonged PR interval on ECG. In this case, Ahmed has migratory polyarthritis, a major manifestation. The newly heard apical pansystolic murmur is also a major manifestation. The positive acute phase reactants and ASOT of 500 units are minor manifestations. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Option A is incorrect as it includes two minor manifestations instead of one. Option C is incorrect as it has one major and two minor manifestations. Option D is incorrect as it does not include any minor manifestations. Understanding the Jones criteria is crucial for healthcare providers, especially pediatric nurses, as it helps in the accurate diagnosis of rheumatic fever in children. Recognizing the major and minor manifestations aids in prompt treatment and prevention of complications associated with rheumatic fever.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following is considered a feature suggesting functional abdominal pain in children and adolescents
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Functional abdominal pain is a common condition in children and adolescents. The correct answer is D) Recurrent periumbilical pain. This is because functional abdominal pain is characterized by recurrent abdominal pain that is not associated with organic or structural abnormalities. Periumbilical pain is a common presentation of functional abdominal pain in pediatric patients. Option A) Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing, which is not typically associated with functional abdominal pain but rather with upper gastrointestinal issues. Option B) Deceleration of linear growth is more indicative of chronic conditions such as malnutrition or endocrine disorders, rather than functional abdominal pain. Option C) Nocturnal diarrhea is more commonly seen in conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or infections, rather than functional abdominal pain. Educationally, understanding the features of functional abdominal pain is crucial for healthcare providers who care for pediatric patients. Recognizing the distinguishing characteristics helps in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment, which may include reassurance, lifestyle modifications, and possibly behavioral therapies. It is important to differentiate functional abdominal pain from organic causes to prevent unnecessary tests and interventions, and to address the patient's symptoms effectively.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is a major Modified Duke infective endocarditis criterion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing and assessing for infective endocarditis, the major Modified Duke criteria for diagnosing this condition are crucial to understand. In this question, the correct answer is A) Blood cultures positive for Staph aureus. Rationale for the correct answer: Positive blood cultures for Staph aureus are a major criterion for diagnosing infective endocarditis according to the Modified Duke criteria. Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen associated with infective endocarditis, particularly in cases of acute endocarditis. Rationale for the incorrect options: B) Osler's nodes or Roth spots: These are actually minor criteria in the Modified Duke criteria and not considered a major criterion. C) Septic emboli: While septic emboli are associated with infective endocarditis, it is considered a minor criterion in the Modified Duke criteria. D) Fever < 38°C: Fever is a common symptom of infective endocarditis, but the specific temperature criterion mentioned here is not a major Modified Duke criterion. Educational context: Understanding the diagnostic criteria for infective endocarditis is crucial for pediatric nurses in assessing and managing pediatric patients with this condition. Knowledge of the major and minor criteria, as well as common pathogens involved, helps in early identification, appropriate treatment, and prevention of complications associated with infective endocarditis in pediatric patients.