ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which is the most reliable method for monitoring fluid balance?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily intake and output. Monitoring fluid balance involves tracking the amount of fluids taken in and expelled from the body. Intake includes oral, IV, and tube feedings, while output includes urine, vomitus, diarrhea, and any other fluid losses. Daily intake and output provide a comprehensive view of a patient's fluid status, helping identify trends and potential issues. Vital signs (B) provide general information but not specific to fluid balance. Daily weight (C) can fluctuate due to various factors, not just fluid status. Skin turgor (D) is a late sign of dehydration and not as reliable as intake and output monitoring.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is gathering information about a patients habits and lifestyle patterns. Which method of data collection will the nurse use that will best obtain this information?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform a thorough nursing health history. This method is the best for gathering information about a patient's habits and lifestyle patterns because it involves asking specific questions related to the patient's daily routines, habits, and lifestyle choices. By obtaining a comprehensive health history, the nurse can gather valuable information about the patient's diet, exercise habits, sleep patterns, stress levels, substance use, and other lifestyle factors that may impact their health. Reviewing lab results (A) may provide some information but not specifically about habits and lifestyle. Conducting a physical assessment (B) focuses more on the patient's physical condition rather than lifestyle. Prolonging the termination phase of the interview (D) is not a method of data collection and does not focus on gathering information about habits and lifestyle patterns.
Question 3 of 9
The patient develops a low-grade fever 18 hours post-operatively and has diminished breath sounds. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take to prevent complications? i.Administer antibiotics iv.Decrease fluid intake ii.Encourage coughing and deepbreathing v.Ambulate patient as ordered iii.Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2 and 5. Diminished breath sounds indicate possible atelectasis or pneumonia post-operatively, making coughing and deep breathing (2) and ambulation (5) crucial to prevent complications. Decreasing fluid intake (iv) can lead to dehydration, worsening the situation. Administering antibiotics (i) without further assessment may not be necessary at this point. Acetaminophen (iii) can help with fever but does not address the underlying respiratory issue.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash and suffers a right femur fracture. The leg is stabilized in a full leg cast. Otherwise, the patient has no other major injuries, is in good health, and reports only moderate discomfort. Which is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis the nurse will include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most pertinent nursing diagnosis for this patient is acute pain (Choice C). This is because the patient's right femur fracture would likely cause significant pain and discomfort, which is a priority to address for optimal recovery and comfort. Managing pain effectively is crucial in promoting healing and preventing complications. Posttrauma syndrome (Choice A) is not as immediate a concern in this scenario. While constipation (Choice B) and anxiety (Choice D) are important considerations, addressing acute pain takes precedence in the initial plan of care to ensure the patient's comfort and well-being.
Question 5 of 9
During a routine checkup, the nurse assesses a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the common AIDS-related cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kaposi’s sarcoma. In AIDS patients, Kaposi’s sarcoma is a common cancer caused by human herpesvirus 8. It presents as purple or brown skin lesions. Squamous cell carcinoma (A), leukemia (B), and multiple myeloma (C) are not commonly associated with AIDS. Squamous cell carcinoma is linked to sun exposure, leukemia originates in the bone marrow, and multiple myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D due to its strong association with AIDS.
Question 6 of 9
A novice nurse collects data on a newly admitted client. Upon evaluation of this data, the nurse provides an erroneous interpretation. What is a corrective action for this interpretation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it encourages the novice nurse to independently observe the situation with a peer, validate the data, and discuss afterward. This approach promotes reflection, peer learning, and validation of collected data, which are essential for learning and growth. It allows the nurse to self-assess and correct errors through discussion and feedback. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the need for validation and peer feedback. Choice C is incorrect as repeating the same mistake without guidance does not promote learning. Choice D is incorrect as meeting with the nurse manager may not provide the same level of peer learning and validation as observing with a peer.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff symptoms is associated with AIDS related distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abnormal sensations such as burning and numbness. In AIDS-related DSP, damage to nerves causes abnormal sensations like burning and numbness. This is due to the progressive nerve damage affecting sensory functions. Staggering gait and muscle incoordination (A) are more common in conditions affecting motor nerves. Delusional thinking (C) is not a symptom of DSP. Incontinence (D) is not typically associated with DSP but may happen in more advanced stages due to loss of sensation.
Question 8 of 9
When the nurse is reviewing a patient’s daily laboratory test results, which of the ff. electrolyte imbalances should the nurse recognize as predisposing the patient to digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Digoxin toxicity can be potentiated by hypokalemia due to the risk of enhanced cardiac toxicity. 2. Hypokalemia can lead to increased sensitivity of cardiac cells to digoxin. 3. Low potassium levels can disrupt the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, enhancing digoxin's effects. 4. The nurse should recognize hypokalemia as a predisposing factor for digoxin toxicity. Summary: A: Hypokalemia is the correct answer as it enhances digoxin toxicity by affecting cardiac function. B: Hyponatremia does not directly predispose to digoxin toxicity. C: Hyperkalemia is not a predisposing factor and can actually counteract digoxin's effects. D: Hypernatremia is not directly related to digoxin toxicity.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse knows that a client understands a low residue diet when he selects which of the following from the menu?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rice and lean chicken. A low residue diet aims to reduce fiber intake to ease digestion. Rice and lean chicken are low in fiber and easy to digest. Pasta with vegetables (B) contains high-fiber vegetables. Strawberry pie (C) is high in fiber due to fruit and crust. Tuna casserole (D) may contain high-fiber ingredients like noodles and vegetables. Therefore, A is the best choice for a low residue diet.