Which is the most reliable method for monitoring fluid balance?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily intake and output. Monitoring fluid balance involves tracking the amount of fluids taken in and expelled from the body. Intake includes oral, IV, and tube feedings, while output includes urine, vomitus, diarrhea, and any other fluid losses. Daily intake and output provide a comprehensive view of a patient's fluid status, helping identify trends and potential issues. Vital signs (B) provide general information but not specific to fluid balance. Daily weight (C) can fluctuate due to various factors, not just fluid status. Skin turgor (D) is a late sign of dehydration and not as reliable as intake and output monitoring.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Discharge planning should start at admission to ensure comprehensive preparation. 2. Early planning allows for assessment of needs and coordination of resources. 3. It promotes continuity of care and reduces risks of readmission. 4. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they miss the opportunity for proactive planning.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Discuss the negative feelings with the client. This is the most appropriate action as it allows the nurse to address and manage their own biases and attitudes towards the client in a professional and constructive manner. By acknowledging and discussing these feelings with the client, the nurse can work towards providing non-judgmental care and fostering a therapeutic relationship. A: Sharing these feelings with the client is not appropriate as it can harm the nurse-client relationship and potentially lead to discrimination. C: Developing a written interview form is not addressing the immediate issue of the nurse's negative attitude towards the client. D: Avoiding eye contact with the client is unprofessional and does not address the underlying issue of the nurse's negative feelings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.” Evaluation in nursing is essential to assess the outcomes of nursing interventions and determine the effectiveness of the care provided. It helps in identifying areas for improvement, making informed decisions, and ensuring quality patient care. Choice A is incorrect because evaluation is not solely about checking completion of tasks but rather assessing the impact of those interventions on patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as evaluation is not related to staffing decisions but focuses on assessing the quality of care delivery. Choice D is incorrect as evaluation is not about eliminating paperwork but rather about improving care outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7th cranial nerve. Bell's palsy is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve (7th cranial nerve), leading to facial muscle weakness or paralysis. The 3rd cranial nerve (choice A) controls eye movement, the 5th cranial nerve (choice C) is responsible for facial sensation and chewing, and the 8th cranial nerve (choice D) is related to hearing and balance. Bell's palsy specifically affects the facial muscles, making choice B the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Independent intervention) Rationale: 1. Independent interventions are actions that nurses can initiate without a doctor's order. 2. Teaching a client how to administer insulin falls under the scope of nursing practice. 3. Nurses have the knowledge and authority to educate clients on self-care management. 4. This intervention does not require collaboration with other healthcare providers. Summary: B: Dependent interventions require a doctor's order. C: Interdependent interventions involve collaboration with other healthcare providers. D: Collaborative interventions involve working with other healthcare professionals.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Monitoring Mrs. GC's color, pulse, and respiration is important to assess for any signs of distress during the procedure. Step 2: Labeling all laboratory specimens in numerical order ensures accurate identification and prevents errors in specimen handling. Step 3: Positioning Mrs. GC on her side with knees drawn up to her chest helps maintain proper spinal alignment and reduces the risk of complications. Summary: Option D is correct because all the interventions mentioned are crucial for ensuring patient safety and procedural success. Options A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they each address only one aspect of the procedure, whereas the correct answer encompasses all necessary interventions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Removal of the transplanted kidney. Hyperacute rejection is a severe and immediate immune response to the transplanted organ. In this case, the transplanted kidney must be removed promptly to prevent further complications, as it is irreversibly damaged. High-dose IV cyclosporine (B) is used for immunosuppression but is not effective in treating hyperacute rejection. Bone marrow transplant (C) is not indicated for kidney rejection. Intra-abdominal instillation of methylprednisolone sodium succinate (D) is used for acute rejection, not hyperacute rejection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Rolling Mr. Gabatan on his abdomen, placing a pad under his head, and covering him with any material available is the appropriate action. This position helps protect his airway and prevents potential complications from a possible spinal injury. It also allows for better assessment of his condition by healthcare professionals. Choice A is incorrect because leaving Mr. Gabatan on his back and instructing him to move can worsen any spinal injury he may have sustained. Choice B is incorrect because raising him to a sitting position can also exacerbate his condition. Choice D is incorrect because moving him without proper stabilization can lead to further injury.