ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which is the most effective pattern of palpation for breast cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Dividing the breast into quadrants and inspecting each systematically is the most effective pattern of palpation for breast cancer because it ensures thorough coverage of the entire breast, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. This method allows for a structured approach, reducing the likelihood of missing any potential signs of cancer. A: Beginning at the nipple and making an ever-enlarging spiral may not cover all areas of the breast equally, potentially leading to missed abnormalities. C: Examining in lines resembling mowing a lawn may also result in uneven coverage and potentially missing crucial areas. D: Beginning at the nipple and palpating outward in a stripe pattern may not provide comprehensive coverage of the entire breast, increasing the risk of overlooking abnormalities.
Question 2 of 5
Mr. Kruger is an 84-year-old who presents with a smooth lower abdominal mass in the midline which is minimally tender. There is dullness to percussion up to 6 centimeters above the symphysis pubis. What does this most likely represent?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for D (Enlarged bladder): The presentation of a smooth lower abdominal mass that is minimally tender and associated with dullness to percussion above the symphysis pubis suggests an enlarged bladder. This is a common finding in elderly individuals due to various reasons such as urinary retention or bladder outlet obstruction. The location and characteristics of the mass align with an enlarged bladder. Summary of other choices: A: Sigmoid mass - Unlikely as sigmoid mass typically presents with different characteristics such as irregular shape and may not cause dullness to percussion above the symphysis pubis. B: Tumor in the abdominal wall - Less likely as tumors in the abdominal wall would have a different presentation and wouldn't be associated with urinary symptoms. C: Hernia - Less likely as hernias typically manifest with a bulge that can be reduced and may not cause dullness to percussion above the symphysis pubis.
Question 3 of 5
You are obtaining an arterial blood gas in the radial artery on a retired cab driver who has been hospitalized in the intensive care unit for a stroke. You are concerned about the possibility of arterial insufficiency. You perform the Allen test. This means that you:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Allen test assesses collateral circulation by checking for patency of the ulnar artery. This is important before obtaining an arterial blood gas from the radial artery to ensure adequate blood flow and prevent ischemia. If the ulnar artery is not patent, using the radial artery could lead to arterial insufficiency. Checking the radial artery's patency (Choice A) is not the purpose of the Allen test. Checking the patency of the brachial artery (Choice B) or the femoral artery (Choice D) is not relevant in this context. The correct answer is C because ensuring ulnar artery patency is crucial for arterial blood gas sampling from the radial artery.
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with claudication symptoms and diminished pulses. Which of the following is consistent with chronic arterial insufficiency?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pallor of the foot when raised to 60 degrees for one minute is consistent with chronic arterial insufficiency. When the foot is raised, blood flow decreases, leading to decreased oxygenation and pallor in the presence of arterial insufficiency. This is known as the dependent rubor test, and the delayed return of color is indicative of impaired blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because a quick return of color within 5 seconds suggests normal vascular perfusion. Choice C is incorrect as filling of veins within 10 seconds indicates venous insufficiency rather than arterial insufficiency. Choice D, hyperpigmentation of the skin, is not a typical finding in chronic arterial insufficiency.
Question 5 of 5
A 45-year-old electrical engineer presents to your clinic, complaining of spots on his scrotum. He first noticed the spots several months ago, and they have gotten bigger. He denies any pain with urination or with sexual intercourse. He has had no fever, night sweats, weight gain, or weight loss. His past medical history consists of a vasectomy 10 years ago and mild obesity. He is on medication for hyperlipidemia. He denies any tobacco or illegal drug use and drinks alcohol socially. His mother has Alzheimer's disease and his father died of leukemia. On examination he appears relaxed and has unremarkable vital signs. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised and has no lesions on his penis. Visualization of his scrotum shows three yellow nodules 2-3 millimeters in diameter. During palpation they are firm and nontender. What abnormality of the male genitalia is this most likely to be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Epidermoid cysts. These cysts typically present as firm, non-tender nodules on the scrotum, consistent with the patient's presentation. The history of gradual growth without associated symptoms supports this diagnosis. Additionally, the lack of pain with urination or sexual intercourse rules out sexually transmitted infections like condylomata acuminata (choice A) and syphilitic chancre (choice B). Peyronie's disease (choice C) involves penile curvature and fibrous plaques, not scrotal nodules. In summary, the patient's presentation, physical examination findings, and absence of specific symptoms point towards epidermoid cysts as the most likely diagnosis.